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100+ Free AOBR Radiology Practice Questions

Pass your AOBR Diagnostic Radiology Certifying Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Question 1
Score: 0/0

Which MRI safety zone restricts patient entry to authorized MR personnel only?

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B
C
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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AOBR Radiology Exam

300

MCQs on Written Exam

AOBR Written Exam

500/800

Scaled Passing Score

AOBR scoring policy

$1,600

Total Exam Fees (W+O)

AOBR 2026 fee schedule

~50 / ~250

Physics / Imaging Split

AOBR content outline

10 areas

Diagnostic Imaging Domains

AOBR Part II blueprint

400-600 hrs

Average Study Time

Radiology residents

AOBR's Diagnostic Radiology Written Exam is one of two components (Written + Oral) for AOA board certification in radiology. The Written is 300 MCQs over 5 hours, split into ~50 physics questions (Part I) and ~250 diagnostic imaging questions (Part II) across all ten body areas: chest, GI, GU, MSK, neuro, breast, peds, US, nuclear, and IR. Each component costs $800 ($1,600 total). The passing scaled score is 500/800. After certification, $300/year maintains OCC active status on a 10-year cycle.

Sample AOBR Radiology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AOBR Radiology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 65-year-old smoker has an incidental 5 mm solid pulmonary nodule on chest CT. Per Fleischner 2017 guidelines for low-risk patients, what is the recommended follow-up?
A.No routine follow-up needed
B.CT in 6-12 months
C.CT in 3 months and again at 6-12 months
D.PET-CT and biopsy
Explanation: Per Fleischner 2017, solid nodules <6 mm in low-risk patients require no routine follow-up. Nodules 6-8 mm need CT in 6-12 months; >8 mm need CT in 3 months and consideration of PET/biopsy. High-risk patients have stricter intervals.
2Which CT finding is most specific for usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) pattern?
A.Ground-glass opacities with subpleural sparing
B.Subpleural basal-predominant reticulation with honeycombing
C.Tree-in-bud opacities
D.Centrilobular emphysema
Explanation: UIP pattern requires basal/subpleural predominance, reticulation, and honeycombing (clustered cystic airspaces 3-10 mm in subpleural distribution). Honeycombing is the most specific feature. Common in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
3A patient with sudden dyspnea has a CT pulmonary angiogram showing a filling defect in the right main pulmonary artery. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Pulmonary hypertension
B.Acute pulmonary embolism
C.Bronchogenic carcinoma
D.Aortic dissection
Explanation: A filling defect in the pulmonary artery on CTPA is the direct sign of acute pulmonary embolism. Other findings: right heart strain (RV:LV ratio >1.0), pulmonary infarction (peripheral wedge-shaped consolidation - Hampton hump), enlarged main PA.
4Which mediastinal compartment contains thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, and lymphoma (the '4 T's')?
A.Anterior
B.Middle
C.Posterior
D.Visceral
Explanation: The 4 T's of anterior mediastinum: Thymoma, Teratoma, Thyroid, 'Terrible' lymphoma. Middle mediastinum holds vascular structures, lymphadenopathy, and bronchogenic cysts; posterior contains neurogenic tumors and esophageal pathology.
5A 70-year-old with smoking history has a 1.5 cm peripheral spiculated lung nodule. The SUVmax on FDG PET-CT is 8. What is the appropriate next step?
A.Repeat CT in 6 months
B.Surgical biopsy or CT-guided biopsy
C.Annual screening
D.Discharge from follow-up
Explanation: A spiculated nodule with SUVmax >2.5 is highly suspicious for malignancy. Tissue diagnosis (CT-guided biopsy or surgical resection) is warranted. Spiculation, lobulation, growth, and high SUV all support malignancy.
6A 35-year-old has CT findings of focal liver lesion: arterial enhancement, washout, and capsule on portal venous phase, in a cirrhotic. What is the LI-RADS category?
A.LR-2 (probably benign)
B.LR-3 (intermediate)
C.LR-4 (probably HCC)
D.LR-5 (definitely HCC)
Explanation: LI-RADS 5 (definitively HCC, no biopsy needed): arterial phase hyperenhancement + at least one of washout, capsule, or threshold growth in a >=10 mm observation in at-risk patient. No biopsy required.
7On RUQ ultrasound, a 5 cm gallbladder wall is thickened (>3 mm) with gallstones and pericholecystic fluid in a febrile patient. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Chronic cholecystitis
B.Acute cholecystitis
C.Adenomyomatosis
D.GB carcinoma
Explanation: Sonographic criteria for acute cholecystitis: gallstones (90%+), GB wall >=3 mm, pericholecystic fluid, positive sonographic Murphy sign, GB distension. HIDA scan confirms if equivocal.
8A 25-year-old with RLQ pain has a CT showing a 7 mm appendix with fat stranding and an appendicolith. What is the diagnosis?
A.Crohn disease
B.Acute appendicitis
C.Mesenteric adenitis
D.Cecal cancer
Explanation: Acute appendicitis CT criteria: appendix >=6 mm, wall thickening, periappendiceal fat stranding, +/- appendicolith, +/- abscess. Appendicolith plus fat stranding is highly specific.
9On contrast-enhanced CT, mesenteric ischemia from SMA occlusion shows which finding?
A.Lack of bowel wall enhancement, pneumatosis intestinalis, portal venous gas
B.Diffuse small bowel dilation only
C.Free intraperitoneal air alone
D.Appendicolith
Explanation: Mesenteric ischemia CT signs: lack of mucosal/bowel wall enhancement, bowel wall thickening, pneumatosis intestinalis (gas in wall), portal venous gas (late), free fluid, and SMA filling defect on CTA. Mortality is high.
10Which sign indicates SIGMOID volvulus on plain radiograph?
A.String sign
B.Coffee bean sign
C.Whirl sign
D.Football sign
Explanation: Sigmoid volvulus: 'coffee bean' or 'inverted U' shape pointing toward the RUQ - dilated sigmoid loop with central cleft. Cecal volvulus produces a coffee bean pointing toward the LUQ. Whirl sign is the CT correlate.

About the AOBR Radiology Exam

The AOBR Diagnostic Radiology Certifying Examination is the primary written component of AOA board certification in diagnostic radiology. The Written Exam consists of 300 single-best-answer MCQs delivered in three 100-minute sections of 100 questions each. Part I is approximately 50 physics questions; Part II is approximately 250 image-rich diagnostic imaging questions covering neuroradiology, vascular/IR, cardiopulmonary, GU, ultrasound, breast, GI, MSK, peds, and nuclear medicine. Candidates must also pass the Oral Exam to achieve primary certification.

Questions

300 scored questions

Time Limit

5 hours of testing (three 100-minute sections, 100 questions each)

Passing Score

Scaled score 500/800 on each component (Written, Oral)

Exam Fee

$800 Written + $800 Oral = $1,600 (AOBR 2026) (American Osteopathic Board of Radiology (AOBR))

AOBR Radiology Exam Content Outline

15%

Cardiopulmonary (Chest)

Solid lung nodule Fleischner 2017 (<6 mm low risk no FU, 6-8 mm 6-12 mo CT), Lung-RADS, lung cancer staging TNM 9, ILD patterns (UIP basal/subpleural reticulation + honeycombing; NSIP ground-glass; OP), PE CTPA (filling defect, S1Q3T3 is ECG not CT), pleural effusion DDx, anterior mediastinum 4 T's (thymoma, teratoma, thyroid, terrible lymphoma).

15%

Gastrointestinal Tract

Acute abdomen (appendicitis >=6 mm + fat stranding; SBO transition point), HCC LI-RADS 5 (arterial enhancement + washout + capsule), cholangiocarcinoma, IPMN main/branch duct, pancreatitis Balthazar A-E, IBD (Crohn skip + transmural vs UC continuous mucosal), mesenteric ischemia (SMA occlusion), volvulus (cecal coffee bean, sigmoid).

15%

Musculoskeletal

Salter-Harris I-V, occult hip fracture (MRI gold), arthritis (RA = symmetric MCP/PIP + erosions; OA asymmetric DIP; gout punched-out + overhanging edges; CPPD chondrocalcinosis), Lodwick I-III, ABC (fluid-fluid levels), GCT epiphyseal, osteosarcoma sunburst/Codman, Ewing onion-skin, AVN (crescent sign), marrow replacement.

15%

Neuroradiology

Acute MCA stroke (ASPECTS, hyperdense MCA, dense vessel), ICH ICH score, SAH Fisher/Hunt-Hess, MS (Dawson fingers, juxtacortical, infratentorial), GBM (rim enhancement crossing midline), meningioma (dural tail + CSF cleft), brain mets posterior fossa adults, cauda equina red flags, discitis vs Modic, MRI sequences for seizure (FLAIR + DWI + T2).

10%

Genitourinary Tract

Bosniak 2019 (I/II benign, IIF FU, III/IV surgery), urolithiasis NCCT, RCC clear cell vs papillary vs chromophobe, PI-RADS 1-5 (PZ DWI, TZ T2), bladder TCC staging, adrenal washout >40% absolute / >60% relative = adenoma, O-RADS, endometrial >4 mm postmenopausal.

10%

Breast Imaging

BI-RADS 0-6 (3 short-interval, 4 biopsy, 5 highly suggestive), screening MLO + CC, calcifications (pleomorphic, fine linear branching = malignant), masses (spiculated suspicious, circumscribed probably benign), MRI for >=20% lifetime risk, biopsy modality matched to lesion conspicuity.

10%

Pediatric Radiology

NEC (pneumatosis intestinalis, portal venous gas), intussusception (target sign US, air enema reduction), pyloric stenosis (pylorus >=4 mm thick, >=14 mm long), malrotation (DJJ to left of midline), CPAM/sequestration, child abuse (metaphyseal corner, posterior rib, scapular, sternal), bone age (Greulich-Pyle).

5%

Physics & Radiation Safety

kVp affects contrast, mAs affects noise, CT CTDIvol & DLP * k -> effective dose, MRI zones I-IV (Zone IV scanner room), deterministic (cataract >0.5 Gy, skin >2 Gy) vs stochastic (no threshold), ALARA, contrast-induced nephropathy (eGFR <30 risk), gadolinium NSF (group I avoid in eGFR <30), Doppler aliasing (Nyquist) and artifacts.

5%

Nuclear Medicine & IR Basics

V/Q PIOPED (high prob = >=2 mismatched segmental), MAG3 functional vs DMSA cortical, bone scan superscan (renal blackout) in metastatic prostate/breast, FDG PET SUV >2.5 suspicious, HIDA for acute cholecystitis (non-visualization at 4 h or after morphine), Tc-99m sestamibi for parathyroid, IR basics (PTC, TIPS in variceal bleed/refractory ascites, UAE for fibroids).

How to Pass the AOBR Radiology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled score 500/800 on each component (Written, Oral)
  • Exam length: 300 questions
  • Time limit: 5 hours of testing (three 100-minute sections, 100 questions each)
  • Exam fee: $800 Written + $800 Oral = $1,600 (AOBR 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AOBR Radiology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master the Fleischner 2017 nodule criteria cold: solid <6 mm low-risk no follow-up; 6-8 mm CT in 6-12 mo; >8 mm CT + PET-CT or biopsy. Subsolid <6 mm no follow-up; >=6 mm part-solid CT 3-6 mo. Know Lung-RADS 1-4X and ACR appropriateness for incidental nodules.
2Internalize Bosniak 2019, LI-RADS 5 (arterial hyperenhancement + washout + capsule + threshold growth = HCC in at-risk patient), PI-RADS v2.1 (peripheral zone DWI dominant, transition zone T2 dominant), and BI-RADS 0-6. These categorical systems generate easy points if memorized and harsh deductions if confused.
3For physics, focus on dose (CTDIvol vs DLP -> effective dose using k factor), kVp vs mAs (kVp = contrast/penetration, mAs = noise/dose linear), MRI safety zones (Zone IV scanner room), deterministic thresholds (skin 2 Gy erythema, cataract 0.5 Gy, sterility 2.5 Gy testes), stochastic effects (no threshold), and gadolinium NSF (avoid Group I in eGFR <30).
4Drill emergency neuroradiology: hyperdense MCA / dense dot sign / ASPECTS 0-10 (>=6 favorable for thrombectomy 6-24 h with LVO), Hunt-Hess and Fisher for SAH, MS Dawson fingers + perivenular + juxtacortical, cauda equina red flags + emergent MRI, discitis-osteomyelitis (Modic I edema, contrast enhancement, disc-space narrowing).
5Don't shortchange peds: NEC pneumatosis + portal venous gas, intussusception target sign with air enema reduction (recurrence ~10%), HPS pylorus >=4 mm thick / >=14 mm long with US, malrotation DJJ position, child abuse (metaphyseal corner = specific, posterior rib + scapular + sternal high-specificity for abuse), and bone age via Greulich-Pyle.
6Practice oral-exam-style hot-seat cases concurrently with written prep - oral pass rates are typically lower. Run 4-aspect (find -> describe -> DDx -> management) on every case, citing ACR Appropriateness Criteria when relevant. Reading aloud while interpreting builds the verbal pattern.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who is eligible for the AOBR Diagnostic Radiology certifying examination?

Candidates must be DO or MD graduates of an accredited medical school, have completed (or be in the final year of) an accredited diagnostic radiology residency, hold an unrestricted state medical license, and have a program director attestation of satisfactory competence. Both the Written and Oral exams must be passed for primary certification. Candidates pursuing the Neuroradiology subspecialty certification require an additional ACGME-accredited fellowship.

How is the AOBR Diagnostic Radiology Written Exam structured?

The Written Exam is 5 hours of testing delivered in three 100-minute sections of 100 questions each (300 MCQs total). Part I includes approximately 50 physics and radiation safety questions; Part II includes approximately 250 image-rich diagnostic imaging questions across neuroradiology, vascular/interventional, cardiopulmonary, genitourinary, ultrasound, breast, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, pediatric, and nuclear medicine. It is administered at designated AOBR exam sites.

What is the fee for the AOBR Radiology exam?

The AOBR Written Exam fee is $800 and the Oral Exam fee is $800, for a total of $1,600 for primary certification (2026 rates; confirm with AOBR). Re-examination fees are also $800. A late application surcharge of $240 applies to the Written if submitted after the first deadline. After certification, the annual Osteopathic Continuous Certification (OCC) fee is $300 due each December 31.

What is the passing score on the AOBR Written Exam?

AOBR uses a scaled score system of 200-800 with a passing score of 500 or higher on both the Written and Oral exams. The standard is criterion-referenced rather than norm-referenced, so the passing scaled score corresponds to a fixed competency threshold rather than ranking against the cohort.

What is the pass rate on the AOBR Diagnostic Radiology Written Exam?

AOBR does not publish detailed annual first-attempt pass rates as routinely as the ABR. Available reports suggest first-attempt pass rates in the high 80s to low 90s percent range for residents from AOA-recognized programs. Repeat-candidate rates are markedly lower. A robust review course, dedicated case-based practice, and a high-volume question bank are essential to maximize first-attempt success.

How long should I study for the AOBR Diagnostic Radiology exam?

Most candidates report 400-600 hours of dedicated prep beginning in R3 and intensifying through R4. A high-yield plan allocates ~15% to physics + radiation safety, ~70% to the core diagnostic areas (chest, GI, GU, MSK, neuro, breast, peds), ~10% to nuclear and IR basics, and ~5% to dedicated oral exam case prep. Daily image-based question practice (50-100 cases/day in the final 8-12 weeks) correlates with passing.

How does AOBR differ from the ABR boards?

The AOBR is the AOA's osteopathic certifying board (administering Written + Oral exams at designated sites for DOs). The ABR is the allopathic boarding pathway and uses the Core (R3) + Certifying (R4 OLA-style) exams via Pearson VUE. Following the GME single accreditation system (2020), DOs in ACGME programs may pursue either ABR or AOBR certification (or both). The blueprints overlap significantly but the AOBR retains a 1% OPP/OMM component and uses Written/Oral format rather than Core/Certifying.

What subspecialty certifications does AOBR offer?

AOBR offers a Neuroradiology subspecialty Certificate of Added Qualifications ($900 exam fee), requiring completion of an ACGME-accredited neuroradiology fellowship in addition to primary diagnostic radiology certification. DOs pursuing interventional radiology, body imaging, pediatric radiology, breast imaging, or nuclear medicine subspecialty certification generally do so via the ABR or ABNM rather than AOBR, given the limited AOBR subspecialty CAQ portfolio.