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100+ Free AOBFP Family Medicine Practice Questions

Pass your AOBFP Family Medicine Certifying Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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98.44% five-year aggregate first-time pass rate Pass Rate
100+ Questions
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Question 1
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A 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack-year smoking history (quit 4 years ago) asks about lung cancer screening. What is the most appropriate recommendation per USPSTF 2026 guidance?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AOBFP Family Medicine Exam

275

Total Scored Items

AOBFP Family Medicine Cognitive Exam

$550

2026 Application Fee

AOBFP Cognitive Exam fee

500

Passing Scaled Score

AOA 200-800 criterion-referenced scaled scoring

98.44%

5-Year First-Time Pass Rate

AOBFP Family Medicine Cognitive Exam aggregate

10-15%

OMM/OPP Content Weight

AOBFP integrated osteopathic principles content

3-Year

Required Residency

AOA- or ACGME-accredited Family Medicine residency within 6 years

The AOBFP Family Medicine Certifying Examination is a remote-proctored 275-item single-best-answer MCQ exam delivered in three 98-minute sections (~5.5 hours total). The 2026 blueprint distributes content across outpatient adult medicine (~30%), pediatrics (~15%), OMM/OPP (~10-15%), women's health (~10-12%), geriatrics (~10%), behavioral health (~10%), and urgent care/procedures (~8-10%). Scaled scoring on a 200-800 scale with a passing score of 500. 2026 application fee is $550 and the five-year aggregate first-time pass rate is 98.44%. Requires completion of an AOA- or ACGME-accredited Family Medicine residency within the past 6 years.

Sample AOBFP Family Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AOBFP Family Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man presents for an annual visit. BP averages 148/92 mmHg on two prior visits and is 150/94 today, confirmed by a repeat reading after 5 minutes. He has no diabetes, no CKD, and no known cardiovascular disease. 10-year ASCVD risk is 12%. According to current guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?
A.Initiate lifestyle modification only and reassess in 6 months
B.Initiate lifestyle modification plus a thiazide, ACE inhibitor, or calcium channel blocker
C.Initiate a beta blocker as first-line therapy
D.Order ambulatory BP monitoring before any treatment decision
Explanation: He meets criteria for stage 2 hypertension (>=140/90) and has elevated ASCVD risk. ACC/AHA 2017 and AAFP guidance support starting both lifestyle change AND pharmacotherapy with a first-line agent (thiazide, ACEi/ARB, or CCB).
2A 64-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 8.6%), eGFR 48 mL/min/1.73m2, and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 220 mg/g is currently on metformin 1000 mg twice daily. Which medication should be added next?
A.Glipizide
B.Sitagliptin
C.Empagliflozin
D.Pioglitazone
Explanation: SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) are first-line add-ons in T2DM patients with CKD and albuminuria. ADA 2026 standards recommend SGLT2i regardless of A1c when eGFR is sufficient (>=20-25) and albuminuria is present, for renal and cardiovascular benefit.
3A 42-year-old man presents with low back pain that started 3 days ago after lifting a heavy box. He has no fever, weight loss, history of cancer, IV drug use, neurologic deficit, or bladder/bowel dysfunction. Straight leg raise is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?
A.MRI of the lumbar spine
B.Plain radiographs of the lumbar spine
C.Reassurance, NSAIDs, and continued activity as tolerated
D.Refer to spine surgery
Explanation: Acute uncomplicated mechanical low back pain without red flags requires no imaging within the first 4-6 weeks. First-line management is reassurance, NSAIDs, and staying active; bed rest is discouraged. OMT can also be offered.
4While performing osteopathic structural exam on a patient with acute low back pain, you palpate that the L4 vertebra is rotated and side-bent to the LEFT with extension preferred. Using Fryette's principles, how is this somatic dysfunction named?
A.L4 FRSL (flexed, rotated and side-bent left)
B.L4 ERSL (extended, rotated and side-bent left)
C.L4 NRRSL (neutral, rotated right and side-bent left)
D.L4 ERSR (extended, rotated and side-bent right)
Explanation: Single-segment non-neutral dysfunctions follow Fryette's Type II: rotation and side-bending occur to the SAME side, and extension or flexion is the position of ease. The vertebra is in extension and rotated/side-bent left, so L4 ERSL.
5A 28-year-old G2P1 woman at 28 weeks gestation has a 1-hour 50-g glucose challenge test result of 158 mg/dL. What is the next step?
A.Diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin
B.Order a 3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test
C.Repeat the 1-hour 50-g test in 4 weeks
D.Order a fasting glucose only
Explanation: Per ACOG two-step screening, a 1-hour 50-g screen >=130-140 mg/dL (institutional cutoff) is followed by a diagnostic 3-hour 100-g OGTT. Two or more elevated values on the 3-hour test confirm GDM.
6A 6-month-old infant is in your office for a well-child visit. Per current ACIP and AAP schedules, which of the following vaccines is NOT typically administered at the 6-month visit?
A.DTaP (3rd dose)
B.MMR (1st dose)
C.Hib (3rd dose, depending on product)
D.Hepatitis B (3rd dose)
Explanation: MMR is given at 12-15 months. At 6 months, DTaP-3, Hib-3, PCV-3, IPV-3, HepB-3, RV (depending on product), and influenza (seasonal) are routine.
7A 75-year-old woman with osteoporosis (T-score -2.8 at the femoral neck) and no prior fragility fracture is started on alendronate. What is the most important counseling point regarding administration?
A.Take with a full meal to avoid GI upset
B.Take with 6-8 oz of plain water, remain upright for 30 minutes, and avoid other food/drink
C.Take at bedtime to avoid nausea
D.Take only when osteoporotic pain is present
Explanation: Oral bisphosphonates must be taken on an empty stomach with plain water and the patient must remain upright for 30-60 minutes to prevent pill esophagitis. Food, calcium, and other beverages markedly reduce absorption.
8A 32-year-old woman has had a depressed mood, anhedonia, fatigue, poor concentration, and decreased appetite nearly every day for 6 weeks. PHQ-9 is 17. She has no prior psychiatric history and no medical comorbidities. Which first-line treatment plan is most appropriate?
A.Bupropion plus cognitive behavioral therapy
B.Sertraline plus cognitive behavioral therapy
C.Lithium plus psychotherapy
D.Olanzapine monotherapy
Explanation: Moderate MDD is treated with an SSRI plus evidence-based psychotherapy (typically CBT or IPT). Sertraline is a reasonable first-line SSRI. Combined therapy is superior to either alone for moderate-to-severe depression.
9A 45-year-old man with no prior cardiac history presents to the office with substernal pressure for 30 minutes radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows 2-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A.Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and discharge with a cardiology follow-up
B.Call 911 for transport to a PCI-capable facility, give aspirin 325 mg chewed
C.Order a stress test the next morning
D.Begin oral metoprolol and observe in the office
Explanation: Inferior STEMI requires immediate transfer for primary PCI (door-to-balloon <=90 minutes). Aspirin 162-325 mg chewed is given immediately. Time-to-reperfusion drives mortality.
10A 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack-year smoking history (quit 4 years ago) asks about lung cancer screening. What is the most appropriate recommendation per USPSTF 2026 guidance?
A.Annual chest x-ray
B.Annual low-dose CT (LDCT)
C.Sputum cytology every 2 years
D.No screening indicated
Explanation: USPSTF recommends annual LDCT for adults aged 50-80 with a >=20 pack-year smoking history who currently smoke or quit within the past 15 years. She meets criteria.

About the AOBFP Family Medicine Exam

The AOBFP Family Medicine Certifying Examination is the primary osteopathic board certification exam administered by the American Osteopathic Board of Family Physicians, an AOA Specialty Certifying Board. It is a remote-proctored, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice test consisting of 275 scored items across three sections of approximately 92 questions in 98 minutes each. Content reflects the full scope of family medicine practice -- outpatient adult medicine (hypertension, diabetes, dyslipidemia, preventive screening), pediatrics (well-child care, AAP/ACIP schedule, common acute illnesses, ADHD), women's health and maternity care (prenatal care, contraception, menopause), geriatrics (falls, dementia, polypharmacy, osteoporosis), behavioral health (depression, anxiety, substance use disorders, postpartum depression), urgent/emergent care (MI, stroke, trauma, PEP), and osteopathic principles and practice (~10-15% OMM/OPP content covering Fryette principles, sacral diagnosis, HVLA, muscle energy, counterstrain, Chapman points, and viscerosomatic reflexes). Requires completion of an AOA- or ACGME-accredited 3-year Family Medicine residency within the past 6 years and adherence to the AOA Code of Ethics.

Questions

275 scored questions

Time Limit

~5.5 hours (three 98-min sections)

Passing Score

Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scaled scoring)

Exam Fee

$550 application fee (AOBFP 2026 Cognitive Exam) (American Osteopathic Board of Family Physicians (AOBFP) -- remote-proctored CBT)

AOBFP Family Medicine Exam Content Outline

~30%

Outpatient Adult Medicine

Hypertension management per ACC/AHA 2017 (stage 1 >=130/80; stage 2 >=140/90; first-line thiazide/ACEi-ARB/CCB). Type 2 diabetes per ADA 2026 (metformin first-line; SGLT2 inhibitors first-line for CKD with albuminuria or HFrEF/HFpEF; GLP-1 RAs for ASCVD). Dyslipidemia (high-intensity statin if LDL >=190, ASCVD, or DM 40-75 with ASCVD risk; moderate-intensity for primary prevention >=7.5% risk). USPSTF preventive screening (colorectal at 45, lung CT 50-80 with 20 pack-year history, cervical 21-65, breast 40-74 biennial, AAA in men 65-75 ever-smokers). Respiratory (asthma GINA, COPD GOLD LAMA/LABA/ICS), GI (GERD, Barrett's surveillance every 3-5 years for non-dysplastic), endocrine (Hashimoto's, Graves'), infections (cellulitis cephalexin, uncomplicated UTI nitrofurantoin, latent TB 3HP or 4R, atypical pneumonia macrolide), and dermatology.

~15%

Pediatrics

Well-child care visit schedule and Bright Futures, AAP/ACIP routine immunization schedule (DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, RV, HepB, MMR at 12-15 months, varicella, HPV starting age 9-11, Tdap at 11-12, influenza annually), growth charts and developmental milestones (CDC 'Learn the Signs Act Early'), common acute infections (acute otitis media -- high-dose amoxicillin first-line; croup -- dexamethasone + nebulized racemic epinephrine; bronchiolitis -- supportive; pediatric pneumonia), pediatric asthma maintenance (low-dose ICS for persistent), ADHD per AAP 2019 (behavioral first-line under age 6; stimulants methylphenidate or amphetamine + behavioral 6-12), autism spectrum (M-CHAT-R screening 18 and 24 months), pediatric obesity, sports preparticipation 14-element AHA exam, and safe-sleep (supine, firm flat surface, room-share without bed-sharing).

~10-15%

Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OMM)

Four tenets of osteopathic medicine: (1) body is a unit; (2) self-regulatory and self-healing mechanisms; (3) structure and function reciprocally interrelated; (4) rational treatment based on these. Fryette principles -- Type I (group, neutral; side-bending and rotation OPPOSITE sides) vs Type II (single-segment, non-neutral; side-bending and rotation SAME side). OMT modalities -- HVLA (direct thrust through restrictive barrier), muscle energy (patient isometric contraction against physician resistance), counterstrain (90-second tender-point hold), myofascial release, balanced ligamentous tension (BLT), Still technique (combined indirect-to-direct), facilitated positional release. Cranial -- primary respiratory mechanism. Sacral diagnosis (R-on-R/L-on-L torsions, unilateral flexion/extension). Chapman points (e.g., appendix at tip of 12th rib right anterior; T11-T12 posterior right). Viscerosomatic reflexes -- cardiac T1-T5 left; small intestine T5-T9 (greater splanchnic). OMT billing CPT 98925-98929 by number of body regions treated. Contraindications -- HVLA contraindicated in fracture, osteoporosis, vertebral artery insufficiency, malignancy at site.

~10-12%

Women's Health & Maternity Care

Contraception -- LARCs (etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel IUDs, copper IUD) are first-line with <1% failure rate; combined OCPs; emergency contraception (copper IUD most effective; ulipristal; levonorgestrel). Preconception -- folic acid 0.4 mg (4 mg for prior NTD), medication review (avoid valproate, ACEi/ARB, isotretinoin). Prenatal care -- first prenatal labs (CBC, blood type/Rh, HIV, syphilis, HepB, urine culture), GDM screening 24-28 weeks via 2-step (50-g 1-hour then 100-g 3-hour) or 1-step (75-g 2-hour). GBS rectovaginal swab 36-37 weeks. Routine labor and delivery management, postpartum follow-up. Breastfeeding and mastitis (dicloxacillin/cephalexin; continue breastfeeding). USPSTF cervical screening (cytology every 3 years 21-29; cytology every 3 years OR hrHPV every 5 years OR co-testing every 5 years for 30-65). Menopause/hormone therapy (NAMS most favorable <60 or within 10 years; reassess >5 years duration). Vasomotor symptoms -- paroxetine 7.5 mg FDA-approved non-hormonal; fezolinetant. Postmenopausal recurrent UTI -- vaginal estrogen.

~10%

Behavioral Health

Depression -- PHQ-9 screening; mild-moderate first-line SSRI plus CBT/IPT; postpartum depression (sertraline preferred in breastfeeding). Anxiety -- GAD-7. Bipolar I -- mania >=7 days; mood stabilizers (lithium narrow therapeutic 0.6-1.2 mEq/L, valproate teratogenic, lamotrigine SJS titration). Eating disorders -- inpatient stabilization for medical instability; refeeding syndrome (hypophosphatemia). Substance use -- AUDIT-C; AUD pharmacotherapy (naltrexone, acamprosate, disulfiram); OUD pharmacotherapy (buprenorphine/naloxone -- X-waiver eliminated 2022 MAT Act, methadone via OTP, naltrexone XR). Tobacco cessation -- varenicline most effective; bupropion; combination NRT (patch + lozenge/gum). Insomnia -- CBT-I first-line. Adolescent confidentiality -- protected for sensitive services within state law.

~10%

Geriatrics

Dementia workup (MoCA, basic labs TSH/B12/CBC/CMP, MRI to evaluate reversible causes); Alzheimer (cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, anti-amyloid lecanemab/donanemab for early disease); Lewy body neuroleptic sensitivity; NPH triad (gait, incontinence, cognition). Delirium -- CAM; reversible causes (UTI, medications, dehydration); avoid benzodiazepines except for alcohol/BZD withdrawal. Polypharmacy -- Beers Criteria (avoid benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, long-acting hypnotics); deprescribing. Falls -- USPSTF Grade B exercise (tai chi, balance training). Osteoporosis -- DEXA T-score <=-2.5 or fragility fracture; bisphosphonates (alendronate -- take with full glass of water, remain upright 30 min); denosumab; teriparatide for severe disease. BPH/LUTS -- alpha-1 blockers (tamsulosin) plus 5-ARI for large glands. GCA -- start steroids before biopsy if vision symptoms. PMR -- low-dose prednisone.

~8-10%

Urgent Care & Procedures

STEMI -- aspirin 162-325 mg chewed, transfer to PCI-capable center, door-to-balloon <=90 minutes. NSTEMI -- DAPT, anticoagulation, risk stratification. Acute stroke -- IV alteplase/tenecteplase within 4.5 hours; mechanical thrombectomy up to 24 hours for LVO with imaging criteria. SVT -- vagal maneuvers, IV adenosine 6 mg then 12 mg. Trauma -- ATLS primary/secondary survey; FAST and CT for stable patients with positive FAST. HIV PEP -- 3-drug ART within 72 hours x 28 days. Lacerations and suturing, joint injections, IUD insertion, fracture splinting, skin biopsy, and ACLS basics.

~5%

Practice Management, Ethics & Quality

Informed consent and capacity assessment, advance directives (POLST, healthcare proxy), shared decision-making (PSA screening 55-69 individual decision), confidentiality and HIPAA, mandatory reporting (child/elder abuse, certain communicable diseases), OMT documentation and CPT 98925-98929 billing requirements (number of body regions, techniques, dysfunctions), MIPS quality measures, medical error disclosure, and DEA opioid prescribing requirements (PDMP check, MAT Act 2022 buprenorphine prescribing).

How to Pass the AOBFP Family Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scaled scoring)
  • Exam length: 275 questions
  • Time limit: ~5.5 hours (three 98-min sections)
  • Exam fee: $550 application fee (AOBFP 2026 Cognitive Exam)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AOBFP Family Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1OMM integration: Expect Fryette principles (Type I group neutral vs Type II single-segment non-neutral), sacral diagnosis (R-on-R forward torsion: deep sulcus right, posterior ILA left; L-on-L: opposite), and Chapman points (appendix at 12th rib tip right anterior; T11-T12 posterior right). Memorize viscerosomatic levels (cardiac T1-T5 left; lung T2-T7; small intestine T5-T9; appendix T9-T12; kidney T10-L1). Practice CPT 98925-98929 billing by number of body regions.
2USPSTF updates: Colorectal cancer screening begins at AGE 45 (Grade B). Lung cancer LDCT 50-80 with 20 pack-year history. Aspirin for primary prevention is no longer broadly recommended (Grade C 40-59 with risk; Grade D >=60). Statin therapy 40-75 with one risk factor and 10-year ASCVD risk >=10% (Grade B). Fall prevention exercise (Grade B). Cervical cancer cytology every 3 years OR hrHPV every 5 years OR co-testing every 5 years for ages 30-65.
3Diabetes 2026: Metformin remains foundational. SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) are first-line in T2DM with CKD/albuminuria (regardless of A1c) and HFrEF/HFpEF. GLP-1 RAs (semaglutide, tirzepatide for type 2 diabetes/obesity) for ASCVD. AVOID sulfonylureas in patients with hypoglycemia risk; AVOID TZDs in heart failure. Blood pressure target <130/80 in diabetic patients per ADA.
4Pediatric pearls: AAP 2019 ADHD -- behavioral parent training first-line under age 6; stimulants + behavioral 6-12. Acute otitis media in children >=2 with non-severe unilateral disease may be observed; high-dose amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day BID first-line for treatment. Kawasaki disease -- fever >=5 days + 4 of 5 criteria; IVIG 2 g/kg + high-dose aspirin to prevent coronary aneurysms. SIDS prevention -- supine, firm flat surface, room-share without bed-sharing.
5Addiction medicine: 2022 MAT Act eliminated the X-waiver -- any DEA-licensed clinician may now prescribe buprenorphine/naloxone for OUD. AUD pharmacotherapy -- naltrexone reduces cravings/heavy drinking, acamprosate maintains abstinence, disulfiram aversive. Tobacco -- varenicline most effective per network meta-analysis; combination NRT (patch + short-acting). Always give thiamine BEFORE glucose in alcohol withdrawal to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the AOBFP Family Medicine Certifying Examination?

The AOBFP Family Medicine Certifying Examination is the primary osteopathic board certification exam administered by the American Osteopathic Board of Family Physicians (AOBFP), an AOA Specialty Certifying Board. The Cognitive (written) Exam is a remote-proctored, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice test of 275 scored questions divided into three 98-minute sections (~5.5 hours total). Content reflects the full scope of family medicine including outpatient adult medicine, pediatrics, women's health and maternity care, geriatrics, behavioral health, urgent and emergent care, and osteopathic principles and practice (~10-15% OMM/OPP content).

Who is eligible to sit for the AOBFP exam?

Candidates must have satisfactorily completed an AOA- or ACGME-accredited 3-year Family Medicine residency within the past 6 years (or be eligible during the final residency year), hold a valid unrestricted medical license, and adhere to the AOA Code of Ethics. The Early Entry Initial Certification (EEIC) pathway allows physicians to take the cognitive exam during their final residency year. Applications are submitted through the AOBFP within the eligibility window.

What is the format and length of the exam?

The Cognitive Exam consists of 275 scored single-best-answer multiple-choice questions in three sections of approximately 92 items, each 98 minutes long, for a total testing time of approximately 5.5 hours. The exam is delivered via remote-proctored platform with breaks between sections. Content is integrated -- osteopathic principles questions appear alongside traditional family medicine content (e.g., a low back pain question may include Fryette principles or sacral diagnosis).

How much does the 2026 AOBFP exam cost?

The 2026 AOBFP Family Medicine Cognitive Exam application fee is $550. Late-application fees may apply if the deadline is missed. Continuing certification under AOA Osteopathic Continuous Certification (OCC) includes Component 3 (Cognitive Assessment), increasingly delivered as a Longitudinal Assessment, with associated annual fees. Retakes within the eligibility window require full re-registration and fee payment. Always verify current fees on the AOBFP website.

When is the AOBFP exam administered?

The AOBFP Cognitive Exam is offered twice yearly via remote-proctored platform -- typically a winter administration (with an Early Entry pathway exam around January) and a fall administration. The 2026 ACOFP In-Service Exam (a separate residency-wide formative assessment) is scheduled for September 9-11, 2026. Exact dates are published on the AOBFP Important Dates page; application periods open 6-8 months before each administration.

How is the AOBFP exam scored?

The AOBFP uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system on a scale of 200-800 with a passing score of 500. Pass/fail is determined relative to the cut score set by the AOBFP examination committee, not against other candidates. Score reports include subdomain feedback for failed candidates to guide remediation. The five-year aggregate first-time pass rate is 98.44% among board-eligible candidates.

How much OMM/OPP content is on the exam?

Osteopathic Principles and Practice comprises approximately 10-15% of the Cognitive Exam, covering the four tenets of osteopathic medicine, Fryette principles, somatic dysfunction diagnosis, OMT techniques (HVLA, muscle energy, counterstrain, myofascial release, BLT, Still, FPR, cranial), sacral diagnosis, Chapman points, viscerosomatic reflexes, autonomics, and OMT billing/coding. Note that osteopathic content is also INTEGRATED throughout other clinical questions -- a back pain or pneumonia stem may include an OMT decision point.

How should I study for the AOBFP exam?

Use a 12-24 month study plan during PGY-2 and PGY-3. Use the ACOFP In-Service Exam annually as a benchmark. Core resources include AAFP Board Review materials, ACOFP Family Medicine Comprehensive Review, Foundations of Osteopathic Medicine (Chila), Savarese OMT Review, and TrueLearn or BoardVitals question banks. Map your study to the 8 content domains (outpatient adult, pediatrics, OMM, women's health, geriatrics, behavioral, urgent care, practice management). Drill high-volume MCQs with timed sets and complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams during the final 8 weeks.