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100+ Free AOBD Dermatology Practice Questions

Pass your AOBD Dermatology Primary Certification Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Which therapy is FIRST-LINE for unresectable BRAF V600E-mutant melanoma?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AOBD Dermatology Exam

400 items

Total Exam Items (6 Sections)

AOBD blueprint

8.5 hours

Total Testing Time

9 hr 40 min total seat time

$1,800

Application Fee (Non-refundable)

AOBD 2026

August 1

Application Deadline

AOBD important dates

500

Passing Scaled Score

AOA 200-800 scale

$175/yr

OCC Component 3 Fee

AOBD longitudinal assessment

The AOBD Primary Certification Exam is a 6-section, 400-item, 8.5-hour computer-based test administered once each fall — Clinical (110 image items), OPP (2 essays), Comprehensive 1 (118), Comprehensive 2 (117), Dermatopathology Concepts (30), and Dermatopathology Slides (25). Application fee is $1,800 non-refundable; retakes are $900-$1,800 depending on sections failed; OCC Component 3 is $175/year. A scaled score of 500+ is required to pass. Application deadline is August 1; exam is offered annually in the fall. Eligibility requires a 3-year AOA/ACGME-accredited dermatology residency.

Sample AOBD Dermatology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AOBD Dermatology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which of the following is FIRST-LINE topical therapy for mild to moderate plaque psoriasis?
A.Oral methotrexate
B.Topical high-potency corticosteroids (with or without topical vitamin D analog)
C.Topical antifungal
D.Topical retinoid alone
Explanation: First-line topical therapy for mild-to-moderate plaque psoriasis includes high-potency topical corticosteroids (clobetasol, betamethasone dipropionate) often combined with topical vitamin D analogs (calcipotriene, calcitriol). Combination products (e.g., calcipotriene-betamethasone) improve compliance. Topical retinoids (tazarotene) are alternatives but cause irritation; topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus, pimecrolimus) are useful for face/intertriginous areas. Systemic therapy (methotrexate, biologics) is reserved for moderate-severe disease.
2A 6-month-old infant has severe atopic dermatitis. Which biologic is FDA-approved for atopic dermatitis down to age 6 months?
A.Dupilumab
B.Tralokinumab
C.Adalimumab
D.Secukinumab
Explanation: Dupilumab (anti-IL-4 receptor alpha) is FDA-approved for moderate-to-severe atopic dermatitis in patients aged 6 months and older. Dupilumab blocks both IL-4 and IL-13 signaling. Tralokinumab (anti-IL-13) is approved for adults. JAK inhibitors (abrocitinib, upadacitinib oral; ruxolitinib cream) are approved for older patients (different age cutoffs per agent). Adalimumab is for psoriasis/IBD/RA; secukinumab is for psoriasis/ankylosing spondylitis.
3A 16-year-old with severe nodulocystic acne is started on isotretinoin. Which monitoring is REQUIRED before each refill in females of reproductive potential?
A.Liver biopsy
B.Two negative pregnancy tests (per iPLEDGE) plus two forms of contraception, lab monitoring of lipids and LFTs
C.Skin biopsy
D.Eye examination
Explanation: Isotretinoin is teratogenic (Pregnancy Category X) — iPLEDGE 2.0 (since 2021) requires TWO negative pregnancy tests for females of reproductive potential before starting and monthly while on therapy. Two forms of contraception are required. Lab monitoring includes baseline and periodic fasting lipid panel and LFTs. Side effects include cheilitis, xerosis, retinoid dermatitis, mood changes (controversial), pseudotumor cerebri (avoid concurrent tetracyclines), and rarely IBD.
4Which biologic class targets IL-17 in plaque psoriasis?
A.Secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab, bimekizumab
B.Ustekinumab
C.Guselkumab, risankizumab
D.Adalimumab, infliximab, etanercept
Explanation: IL-17 inhibitors approved for psoriasis include secukinumab (anti-IL-17A), ixekizumab (anti-IL-17A), brodalumab (anti-IL-17 receptor A), and bimekizumab (anti-IL-17A and IL-17F). They produce rapid, high-level clearance (PASI 90/100). Cautions include candida infections, exacerbation of IBD (use with caution in patients with active or known IBD), and tuberculosis screening. Ustekinumab targets IL-12/23; IL-23 inhibitors include guselkumab, risankizumab, tildrakizumab; TNF inhibitors include adalimumab, infliximab, etanercept.
5A 35-year-old with rosacea presents with persistent erythema and papules. Best first-line therapy?
A.Topical metronidazole, azelaic acid, or ivermectin; plus brimonidine or oxymetazoline for erythema; oral doxycycline 40 mg modified-release for moderate-severe papulopustular disease
B.Oral isotretinoin
C.Topical corticosteroids long-term
D.Topical retinoid alone
Explanation: Rosacea treatment is stratified by subtype. Erythematotelangiectatic — brimonidine 0.33% gel or oxymetazoline 1% cream for transient erythema; vascular laser/IPL for telangiectasias. Papulopustular — topical metronidazole, azelaic acid 15%, ivermectin 1% cream; oral doxycycline 40 mg modified-release (anti-inflammatory dose; sub-antimicrobial). Phymatous (rhinophyma) — ablative/laser/surgery. Avoid topical corticosteroids long-term as they exacerbate rosacea.
6A 4-year-old presents with painful skin peeling, fever, and large bullae with positive Nikolsky sign. Diagnosis?
A.Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) due to S. aureus exfoliative toxin
B.Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) from medication
C.Bullous pemphigoid
D.Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation: Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) results from staphylococcal exfoliative toxin (ETA/ETB) cleaving desmoglein 1 in the granular layer, producing widespread superficial epidermal detachment. Patients are typically young children. Treatment includes anti-staphylococcal antibiotics (nafcillin or vancomycin if MRSA suspected), fluid resuscitation, wound care, and pain control. Mucous membranes are spared (distinguishes from SJS/TEN). Histology shows superficial subgranular cleavage.
7Which is FIRST-LINE treatment for community-acquired MRSA skin and soft tissue infection in an outpatient adult?
A.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, doxycycline, or clindamycin (oral)
B.Amoxicillin-clavulanate alone
C.Cephalexin alone
D.Penicillin V alone
Explanation: Community-acquired MRSA (CA-MRSA) skin and soft tissue infections are typically treated with oral TMP-SMX, doxycycline (or minocycline), or clindamycin. Linezolid is an alternative for serious cases or treatment failures. Hospital-acquired MRSA may require IV vancomycin, daptomycin, or linezolid. Decolonization for recurrent CA-MRSA includes mupirocin nasal twice daily and chlorhexidine body wash; bleach baths for recurrent furunculosis.
8Which condition presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, often recurring at the same anatomic site?
A.Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
B.Varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox)
C.Impetigo
D.Tinea corporis
Explanation: Herpes simplex virus (HSV-1 oral-labial, HSV-2 genital, but overlap) classically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base. Recurrent episodes typically occur at the same anatomic site (often a previously affected dermatome or area). Triggers include sun exposure, illness, stress, menstruation. Diagnosis is by PCR (most sensitive), DFA, viral culture, or Tzanck (multinucleated giant cells but not type-specific). Treatment is acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir.
9Which is the most appropriate treatment of zoster (shingles) within 72 hours of rash onset?
A.Oral antivirals (acyclovir 800 mg 5x daily, valacyclovir 1 g TID, or famciclovir 500 mg TID) for 7-10 days
B.Topical antiviral only
C.Oral antibiotics
D.Topical corticosteroids
Explanation: Acute herpes zoster (shingles) is treated with high-dose oral antivirals — acyclovir 800 mg 5x daily, valacyclovir 1 g TID, or famciclovir 500 mg TID — for 7-10 days, IDEALLY STARTED WITHIN 72 HOURS of rash onset to reduce acute pain duration and risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Pain management may include acetaminophen, NSAIDs, gabapentin, pregabalin, or TCAs. Shingrix vaccine reduces incidence and PHN. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (V1) requires ophthalmology evaluation.
10Which is the most likely cause of tinea capitis in a school-age child in the United States?
A.Trichophyton tonsurans
B.Microsporum canis
C.Candida albicans
D.Malassezia
Explanation: Trichophyton tonsurans is the most common cause of tinea capitis in the United States, often presenting as scaling alopecia or 'black dot' alopecia from hair shaft breakage. Treatment requires SYSTEMIC antifungals — oral griseofulvin (microsize 20-25 mg/kg/day for 6-8 weeks; ultramicrosize 10-15 mg/kg/day) or terbinafine (3-6 mg/kg/day for 4-6 weeks). Topical antifungals alone are inadequate. Adjunctive selenium sulfide or ketoconazole shampoo helps reduce shedding to others.

About the AOBD Dermatology Exam

The AOBD Dermatology Primary Certification Examination is the AOA specialty board exam for osteopathic dermatologists. The exam is administered once per year in the fall, with the application period opening in February and applications due August 1. The exam consists of 400 items across six sections delivered over 8.5 hours of testing (9 hours 40 minutes total seat time including breaks): Clinical (110 image-based items, 120 minutes), Osteopathic Principles & Practice (2 essay items, 60 minutes), Comprehensive Part 1 (118 items, 105 minutes), Comprehensive Part 2 (117 items, 105 minutes), Dermatopathology Concepts (30 items, 60 minutes), and Dermatopathology Slides (25 items, 60 minutes). A scaled score of 500+ on the AOA 200-800 scale is required to pass. The application fee is $1,800, with retake fees of $900-$1,800 depending on sections failed. OCC Component 3 longitudinal assessment is $175/year. Eligibility requires a COCA-accredited DO degree, AOA-approved internship, and completion of a 3-year AOA/ACGME-accredited dermatology residency.

Questions

400 scored questions

Time Limit

8.5 hours testing time (9 hours 40 minutes total seat time including breaks)

Passing Score

Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scale)

Exam Fee

$1,800 non-refundable application fee (AOBD 2026) (American Osteopathic Board of Dermatology (AOBD))

AOBD Dermatology Exam Content Outline

~20%

Inflammatory Dermatoses

Atopic dermatitis (TCS, TCI, crisaborole, dupilumab, tralokinumab, JAK inhibitors abrocitinib/upadacitinib/ruxolitinib topical, ruxolitinib cream for AD). Psoriasis (topicals, narrowband UVB, methotrexate, cyclosporine, biologics — TNF infliximab/adalimumab/etanercept; IL-17 secukinumab/ixekizumab/brodalumab/bimekizumab; IL-23 guselkumab/risankizumab/tildrakizumab; IL-12/23 ustekinumab; deucravacitinib oral TYK2). Acne vulgaris — topical retinoids first, BPO + topical antibiotic combos, oral doxycycline/minocycline, oral spironolactone, oral isotretinoin (iPLEDGE, lipid/LFT monitoring, teratogenicity). Rosacea — topicals (metronidazole, azelaic acid, ivermectin, brimonidine/oxymetazoline), oral doxycycline 40 mg modified-release, laser. Seborrheic dermatitis. Allergic and irritant contact dermatitis — patch testing standard series.

~15%

Infectious Diseases of the Skin

Impetigo (S. aureus, S. pyogenes; bullous staph), cellulitis vs erysipelas (group A strep), necrotizing fasciitis (LRINEC, surgical emergency), MRSA (community CA-MRSA — TMP-SMX, doxycycline, clindamycin; hospital MRSA — vancomycin, linezolid). Viral — HSV-1/HSV-2 (oral antivirals; eczema herpeticum), VZV (zoster — antivirals within 72 h; Shingrix vaccine), HPV warts (cryotherapy, podophyllotoxin, imiquimod, salicylic acid), molluscum, monkeypox/mpox. Fungal — tinea (topical azole or terbinafine; oral griseofulvin/terbinafine for tinea capitis), candidiasis, onychomycosis (oral terbinafine). Parasitic — scabies (permethrin 5%, oral ivermectin), lice. Syphilis (penicillin G; Jarisch-Herxheimer).

~10%

Autoimmune and Bullous Dermatoses

Pemphigus vulgaris — intraepidermal blistering, anti-desmoglein 3 (mucosal-dominant) and anti-desmoglein 1 (mucocutaneous), positive Nikolsky, DIF intercellular IgG and C3, first-line rituximab + prednisone. Bullous pemphigoid — subepidermal blistering, elderly, anti-BP180/BP230, tense bullae, DIF linear IgG and C3 at BMZ, treatment topical clobetasol for mild, oral steroids/doxycycline-nicotinamide/rituximab for moderate-severe. Dermatitis herpetiformis — celiac disease, anti-tissue transglutaminase, IgA granular deposits at dermal papillae, treatment dapsone (G6PD screen) + gluten-free diet. Linear IgA, EBA, Hailey-Hailey, Darier. Cutaneous lupus — DLE, SCLE (anti-Ro/SSA, photosensitive), SLE. Dermatomyositis (Gottron papules, heliotrope rash, malignancy screen in adults). Localized and systemic scleroderma/morphea. Vasculitis — IgAV/HSP, leukocytoclastic, polyarteritis nodosa, GPA.

~20%

Dermatologic Oncology

Melanoma — ABCDE (asymmetry, border, color, diameter >6 mm, evolution). Breslow thickness is the most important prognostic factor. AJCC 8 — pT1a <=0.8 mm without ulceration; SLNB indicated for >=0.8 mm or thinner with ulceration/high mitotic rate. BRAF V600E mutation in ~40-50% — BRAFi (vemurafenib, dabrafenib) + MEKi (trametinib, cobimetinib). Immunotherapy — anti-PD-1 (pembrolizumab, nivolumab) and anti-CTLA-4 (ipilimumab); neoadjuvant pembrolizumab improving outcomes in stage III. Basal cell carcinoma — most common skin cancer; Mohs indications (NCCN/AAD high-risk areas — face/H-zone, recurrent, large, aggressive histology); vismodegib/sonidegib (hedgehog inhibitors) for advanced/metastatic. Cutaneous SCC — Mohs for high-risk areas; cemiplimab for advanced/metastatic. Merkel cell carcinoma — neuroendocrine, MCC polyomavirus, avelumab/pembrolizumab. Mycosis fungoides/Sezary — topical steroids, PUVA, narrowband UVB, total skin electron beam, romidepsin, mogamulizumab. Kaposi sarcoma.

~10%

Pediatric Dermatology

Infantile hemangioma — proliferation phase 0-3 months, involution 1-7 years; oral propranolol 2-3 mg/kg/day first-line for problematic IH (ulceration, periocular, airway, large facial). Capillary malformation (port-wine stain) — PDL; Sturge-Weber if V1 distribution. Atopic dermatitis in infants — emollients, low-potency TCS, TCI, dupilumab approved down to age 6 months. Viral exanthems — HFMD (coxsackie A16/EV71), fifth disease (parvovirus B19, slapped-cheek), roseola (HHV-6/7), measles, varicella. Neonatal lupus (maternal anti-Ro/SSA, congenital heart block risk). Ichthyoses (XLI, ichthyosis vulgaris, lamellar). Epidermolysis bullosa (simplex/junctional/dystrophic). Genodermatoses — NF1 (cafe-au-lait, Lisch nodules, axillary freckling), tuberous sclerosis (ash leaf, shagreen, angiofibroma), ataxia-telangiectasia. Pediatric warts/molluscum (often self-resolves).

~10%

Cosmetic and Procedural Dermatology

Botulinum toxin A — onabotulinumtoxinA (Botox), abobotulinumtoxinA (Dysport), incobotulinumtoxinA (Xeomin), prabotulinumtoxinA, daxibotulinumtoxinA — glabella (procerus, corrugators), forehead frontalis, lateral canthal (crow's feet), masseter, platysma. Onset 3-7 days, peak 2 weeks, duration 3-4 months. Dermal fillers — hyaluronic acid (Restylane, Juvederm — reversible with hyaluronidase), calcium hydroxylapatite (Radiesse), poly-L-lactic acid (Sculptra), PMMA (Bellafill); vascular occlusion = ophthalmic emergency, immediate hyaluronidase 200-500 U. Chemical peels — superficial (glycolic, lactic, salicylic, Jessner), medium (35% TCA), deep (Baker-Gordon phenol). Lasers — KTP/PDL for vascular lesions, Q-switched/picosecond for tattoos/pigment, fractionated CO2/erbium for resurfacing. Mohs micrographic surgery — horizontally embedded frozen sections, 100% peripheral and deep margin examination.

~10%

Dermatopathology

Inflammatory patterns — spongiotic (eczema), psoriasiform (psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus), lichenoid (lichen planus, lichenoid drug reaction, fixed drug eruption), granulomatous (sarcoidosis, granuloma annulare, necrobiosis lipoidica, foreign body), vasculitic (LCV with fibrinoid necrosis), vesiculobullous (intraepidermal — pemphigus; subepidermal — BP, DH, EBA). Neoplastic — BCC (basaloid lobules with peripheral palisading and clefting), SCC (atypical keratinocytes infiltrating dermis), melanoma (asymmetric, poor circumscription, pagetoid, dermal mitoses, Clark levels, Breslow), dysplastic nevus, blue nevus (heavily pigmented dermal melanocytes), atypical fibroxanthoma vs DFSP (CD34+ storiform). Special stains — PAS (fungi, basement membrane), Fite (mycobacteria), Giemsa (mast cells), Congo red (amyloid). IHC — S100/SOX10/MART-1/HMB-45 (melanocytes), CK20 (Merkel), CD30 (LyP/ALCL).

~5%

Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OMM/OMT)

Lymphatic pump techniques for cellulitis with lymphedema, chronic venous stasis, and post-Mohs reconstructive recovery. Five osteopathic models in dermatologic care (biomechanical, respiratory-circulatory, neurologic, metabolic-energy, behavioral). Autonomic considerations for atopic dermatitis flares — suboccipital release and rib raising for sympathetic balance. Chapman reflexes — skin (anterior — intercostal; posterior — paraspinal T-spine). OMM in chronic urticaria, psychogenic pruritus, and stress-related dermatoses. Two essay items on the AOBD OPP section assess OMM application to dermatologic case scenarios.

How to Pass the AOBD Dermatology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scale)
  • Exam length: 400 questions
  • Time limit: 8.5 hours testing time (9 hours 40 minutes total seat time including breaks)
  • Exam fee: $1,800 non-refundable application fee (AOBD 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AOBD Dermatology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master psoriasis biologics by mechanism class and pearls: TNF (infliximab, adalimumab, etanercept — screen for TB before starting), IL-17 (secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab, bimekizumab — caution in IBD, candida risk), IL-23 (guselkumab, risankizumab, tildrakizumab — best safety profile, quarterly dosing), IL-12/23 (ustekinumab), TYK2 oral (deucravacitinib). For atopic dermatitis, know dupilumab (anti-IL-4R), tralokinumab (anti-IL-13), and JAK inhibitors (abrocitinib, upadacitinib, ruxolitinib cream).
2Isotretinoin requirements (iPLEDGE 2.0 since 2021): teratogenicity Category X — two negative pregnancy tests for females of reproductive potential before starting, monthly while on therapy, and 1 month after stopping; two forms of contraception. Lab monitoring — baseline and follow-up lipids and LFTs. Side effects — cheilitis, xerosis, retinoid dermatitis, mood/IBD risk (counsel), pseudotumor cerebri (avoid concomitant tetracyclines), night blindness, hyperostosis with long-term high-dose. Typical dosing 0.5-1 mg/kg/day to a cumulative dose of 120-150 mg/kg.
3Melanoma staging via AJCC 8 — Breslow depth is the most important prognostic factor. T1a is <=0.8 mm without ulceration; SLNB recommended for >=0.8 mm or thinner with ulceration/high mitotic rate. T2 0.8-2.0 mm, T3 2.0-4.0 mm, T4 >4.0 mm. Drill BRAF V600E (~40-50% — BRAF + MEK inhibitor combo), immunotherapy (pembrolizumab, nivolumab, ipilimumab; relatlimab-nivolumab dual checkpoint), and neoadjuvant pembrolizumab for stage III (SWOG S1801).
4Mohs appropriate use criteria (AAD/ACMS/ASDS/ASMS): area H (central face, eyelids, nose, lips, ears, genitalia, hands, feet, ankles, nipples), area M (cheeks, forehead, scalp, neck, jawline, pretibial), area L (trunk, extremities). Aggressive subtypes (infiltrative, micronodular, morpheaform BCC; poorly differentiated SCC; perineural invasion), recurrent tumors, large tumors (>=2 cm trunk/extremity, >=1 cm cheek/forehead, >=0.6 cm area H), and immunosuppressed patients all qualify. Memorize the AUC table — it appears repeatedly on the exam.
5Dermatopathology slides — practice pattern recognition daily: spongiotic (eczema, AD, contact), psoriasiform (regular acanthosis, parakeratosis with Munro microabscesses, neutrophils, dilated dermal capillaries), lichenoid (band-like lymphocytic infiltrate, Civatte bodies, sawtooth rete in lichen planus), granulomatous (sarcoidosis naked granulomas vs caseating TB vs palisading necrobiosis lipoidica/granuloma annulare), vesiculobullous (intraepidermal pemphigus DIF intercellular IgG vs subepidermal BP linear IgG at BMZ vs DH granular IgA at dermal papillae), BCC (basaloid palisading + clefting), melanoma (poor circumscription, asymmetry, pagetoid scatter).

Frequently Asked Questions

Who is eligible for the AOBD Dermatology Primary Certification Examination?

Candidates must hold a COCA-accredited DO degree (or LCME-accredited MD per AOBD policy), have completed an AOA-approved internship, and have completed a 3-year AOA/ACGME-accredited dermatology residency program. An active state medical license and adherence to the AOA Code of Ethics are required. Program director attestation of satisfactory training is required. Applications are due August 1 each year.

How is the AOBD exam structured?

The AOBD primary exam is a 6-section, 400-item, 8.5-hour computer-based test (9 hours 40 minutes total seat time including breaks): Clinical (110 image-based items, 120 minutes), Osteopathic Principles & Practice (2 essay items, 60 minutes), Comprehensive Part 1 (118 items, 105 minutes), Comprehensive Part 2 (117 items, 105 minutes), Dermatopathology Concepts (30 items, 60 minutes), and Dermatopathology Slides (25 items, 60 minutes). A scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scale) is required to pass.

What is the fee for the AOBD exam?

The AOBD primary certification exam application fee is $1,800 non-refundable in 2026. Retake fees range from $900-$1,800 depending on which sections failed. OCC Component 3 longitudinal assessment requires a $175/year fee. Review courses, dermatopathology atlases, and question banks typically add $1,000-$3,000.

When is the AOBD exam offered?

The AOBD Dermatology Primary Certification Exam is offered once each fall. The application period opens in February, with applications due August 1. Specific 2026 exam dates are posted on the AOBD important dates page. The exam is computer-based and delivered through the AOA testing platform.

How is the OPP (osteopathic principles and practice) section structured?

The OPP section consists of 2 essay-format items administered over 60 minutes. Items assess the candidate's ability to apply osteopathic principles and practice — including the five osteopathic models (biomechanical, respiratory-circulatory, neurologic, metabolic-energy, behavioral) and OMM techniques (lymphatic pump, suboccipital release, rib raising, Chapman reflexes) — to dermatologic case scenarios. Strong responses integrate OMM with conventional dermatologic care.

What topics are emphasized on the AOBD exam?

Procedural dermatology and pharmacology together account for nearly half of exam content. Additional emphasis falls on cutaneous oncology (melanoma, BCC, SCC, CTCL), infectious diseases (bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic), inflammatory dermatoses (psoriasis, atopic dermatitis, acne, rosacea), and pediatric dermatology. Dermatopathology is split between Concepts (30 items) and Slides (25 items). Two OPP essay items assess osteopathic principles and practice.

What is the pass rate for the AOBD exam?

AOBD publishes pass-rate summaries periodically. First-time pass rates are generally strong for AOA/ACGME-trained dermatology residency graduates who complete structured board review. Lower pass rates are seen in section retakers and in candidates with gaps in dermatopathology preparation. Candidates should verify current pass-rate data on the AOBD certification website.

How is AOBD certification maintained?

AOBD diplomates maintain certification through AOA Osteopathic Continuous Certification (OCC) Component 3 — a longitudinal assessment administered online. The annual fee is $175 paid at registration. Assessments are not timed; diplomates may stop and resume any time during a quarter, but must answer all assigned items before quarter end. Component 3 replaces the older 10-year recertification examination for AOBD.