100+ Free AOBIM Internal Medicine Practice Questions
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A 70-year-old man has a creatinine increase from 1.2 to 2.5 over 2 days after receiving IV contrast for CT scan. He is otherwise stable, urine output is maintained. Workup shows bland sediment. What is the diagnosis and management?
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Key Facts: AOBIM Internal Medicine Exam
320
Total Scored Items
AOBIM Internal Medicine Written Exam
$800
2026 Application Fee
AOBIM Written Exam fee (plus $240 late fee)
500
Passing Scaled Score
AOA 200-800 criterion-referenced scaled scoring
93.62%
5-Year First-Time Pass Rate
AOBIM Internal Medicine Written Exam aggregate
1-4%
OMM/OPP Content Weight
AOBIM integrated osteopathic principles content
3-Year
Required Residency
AOA- or ACGME-accredited Internal Medicine residency
The AOBIM Internal Medicine Certifying Examination is a remote-proctored 320-item single-best-answer MCQ exam delivered in four 80-item sections of 2 hours each (~8 hours of testing). The 2026 blueprint distributes content across cardiovascular (~14%), GI/hepatology (~9-13%), pulmonary (~9-13%), infectious disease (~8-12%), endocrinology (~7-11%), nephrology (~7-10%), heme/onc (~7-10%), rheumatology (~5-8%), neurology (~5-7%), general IM (~5-8%), and OMM (~1-4%). Scaled scoring 200-800 with passing score 500. 2026 application fee is $800 (plus $240 late fee). 5-year aggregate first-time pass rate is 93.62%. Requires AOA- or ACGME-accredited IM residency.
Sample AOBIM Internal Medicine Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your AOBIM Internal Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 62-year-old man presents with retrosternal chest pain at rest for 30 minutes, diaphoresis, and dyspnea. ECG shows 3-mm ST elevation in V2-V4. Initial troponin elevated. He is 60 minutes from a PCI-capable center. What is the most appropriate management?
2A 58-year-old man with HFrEF (EF 30%), NYHA class III, is on lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, and furosemide. Which medication has the strongest evidence to add for mortality reduction?
3A 55-year-old man with COPD on tiotropium has had two moderate exacerbations in the past year and worsening dyspnea. Eosinophil count is 350 cells/μL. What is the appropriate next step in GOLD-aligned therapy?
4A 45-year-old woman presents with 6 months of intermittent epigastric pain, fatty food intolerance, and post-prandial nausea. RUQ ultrasound shows multiple gallstones with no wall thickening or pericholecystic fluid. LFTs are normal. What is the most appropriate management?
5A 60-year-old woman with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes has eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73m2 and a UACR of 350 mg/g. Her A1c is 8.4%. She is currently only on metformin 500 mg BID. According to ADA 2026 standards, what is the best next step?
6A 28-year-old woman presents with palpitations, weight loss, heat intolerance, and tremor. Exam shows diffuse goiter and a fine tremor. TSH <0.01 mIU/L, free T4 elevated, TSI positive. Pregnancy test negative. What is the best initial therapy?
7A 67-year-old smoker with a 50 pack-year history is found to have an incidental 8-mm solid pulmonary nodule on CT. He has no symptoms. Per Fleischner Society guidelines, what is the most appropriate management?
8A 70-year-old man with new atrial fibrillation has BP 142/86, HR 130 irregular. CHA2DS2-VASc is 4. No prior bleeding. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
9A 45-year-old woman with active rheumatoid arthritis on methotrexate has elevated liver enzymes (AST/ALT 3× upper limit). She has no alcohol use. What is the most appropriate next step?
10A 35-year-old woman presents with malar rash, oral ulcers, photosensitivity, arthritis, and pancytopenia. ANA is positive 1:320; anti-dsDNA elevated; low complement (C3, C4). What is the diagnosis?
About the AOBIM Internal Medicine Exam
The AOBIM Internal Medicine Certifying Examination is the primary osteopathic board certification exam administered by the American Osteopathic Board of Internal Medicine, an AOA Specialty Certifying Board partnered with the American College of Osteopathic Internists (ACOI). The Written Exam is a remote-proctored, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice test of 320 scored items divided into four sections of 80 questions each over approximately 8 hours of testing time (total seat time ~8 hours 50 minutes). Content reflects the full breadth of internal medicine practice with heaviest weighting on cardiovascular disease (~14%), gastroenterology/hepatology (~9-13%), pulmonary medicine (~9-13%), infectious disease (~8-12%), endocrinology (~7-11%), nephrology (~7-10%), hematology/oncology (~7-10%), rheumatology (~5-8%), neurology (~5-7%), general IM/practice management (~5-8%), and osteopathic principles & practice (~1-4% OMM/OPP). Requires completion of an AOA- or ACGME-accredited Internal Medicine residency.
Questions
320 scored questions
Time Limit
~8 hours (4 sections × 2 hours; ~8h 50m seat time)
Passing Score
Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scaled scoring)
Exam Fee
$800 application fee (AOBIM 2026 Written Exam) (American Osteopathic Board of Internal Medicine (AOBIM) -- remote-proctored CBT)
AOBIM Internal Medicine Exam Content Outline
Cardiovascular Disease
ACS (STEMI primary PCI <=90 min door-to-balloon at PCI center; <=120 min for transfer; fibrinolytics if PCI unavailable; aspirin 162-325 mg chewed; DAPT; statin; anticoagulation). NSTEMI risk-stratify (TIMI, GRACE), early invasive strategy for high-risk. HFrEF -- quadruple therapy: ARNI/ACEi/ARB, evidence-based beta blocker (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol), MRA (spironolactone/eplerenone), SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin/empagliflozin). HFpEF -- SGLT2 inhibitor first-line (DELIVER, EMPEROR-Preserved), diuretic for congestion. AF -- rate control + DOAC for CHA2DS2-VASc >=2 men or >=3 women; DOACs preferred over warfarin; left atrial appendage closure for contraindications to OAC. Valvular -- severe symptomatic AS warrants AVR/TAVR (Class I). HTN -- ACC/AHA 2017 staging; hypertensive emergency requires IV antihypertensives with <=25% MAP reduction in first hour. Lipids -- high-intensity statin for ASCVD/LDL>=190/DM 40-75 with risk; add ezetimibe and PCSK9 inhibitor (alirocumab, evolocumab) or inclisiran for very-high-risk.
Pulmonary Medicine
COPD GOLD 2026 -- LAMA or LABA for symptoms; LAMA + LABA for exacerbations/dyspnea; add ICS for eosinophils >=300 or recurrent exacerbations (triple therapy LAMA/LABA/ICS); roflumilast for severe chronic bronchitis with low FEV1; home NIV for chronic hypercapnia (HOT-HMV). Severe asthma biologics -- omalizumab (anti-IgE allergic), mepolizumab/reslizumab/benralizumab (anti-IL-5 eosinophilic), dupilumab (anti-IL-4Rα type 2), tezepelumab (anti-TSLP across phenotypes). PE -- DOAC first-line; outpatient management for low-risk PESI/sPESI; thrombolytics for massive PE with shock. Pneumonia -- CAP IDSA/ATS (outpatient amoxicillin or doxycycline; macrolides if high local susceptibility); HAP/VAP MDR coverage including Pseudomonas (piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, meropenem) + MRSA (vancomycin/linezolid). Lung cancer -- NSCLC genomic testing for EGFR/ALK/ROS1/BRAF/KRAS-G12C/MET/RET/HER2/NTRK; adjuvant osimertinib for EGFR-mutant stage IB-IIIA (ADAURA); immunotherapy (pembrolizumab) for PD-L1+ advanced disease. SCLC -- limited-stage chemoradiation + PCI; extensive-stage chemo + atezolizumab/durvalumab. ILD -- IPF antifibrotics (pirfenidone, nintedanib); hypersensitivity pneumonitis remove exposure. PH -- right heart catheterization for confirmation. Tension pneumothorax -- needle decompression.
Gastroenterology & Hepatology
GI bleeding -- variceal (octreotide, ceftriaxone for SBP prophylaxis, EGD with banding; TIPS for refractory) vs non-variceal (PPI, EGD, hemostasis). PUD/H. pylori (test-and-treat; quadruple therapy with bismuth/PPI/metronidazole/tetracycline for resistance). GERD/Barrett (PPI; surveillance EGD every 3-5 years non-dysplastic; endoscopic eradication for dysplasia). IBD -- UC mesalamine 5-ASA first-line, step up to steroids, immunomodulators, biologics (anti-TNF, vedolizumab, ustekinumab, tofacitinib, ozanimod); Crohn step-up similar with adalimumab/infliximab/ustekinumab/risankizumab. Cirrhosis -- SBP (3rd-gen cephalosporin + albumin 1.5 g/kg day 1 and 1 g/kg day 3); hepatic encephalopathy (lactulose to 2-3 soft stools/day; rifaximin for recurrence); HCC surveillance (US + AFP every 6 months in cirrhotic). HCV -- pan-genotypic DAAs (glecaprevir/pibrentasvir 8w; sofosbuvir/velpatasvir 12w) with cure >95%. Acute pancreatitis -- LR fluids, no prophylactic antibiotics. NAFLD/MASH -- weight loss; resmetirom for non-cirrhotic F2-F3 fibrosis; GLP-1 RAs. C. difficile -- fidaxomicin or oral vancomycin first-line (IDSA 2021).
Endocrinology
T2DM ADA 2026 -- metformin foundational; SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) first-line for CKD with albuminuria (DAPA-CKD, EMPA-KIDNEY) and HFrEF/HFpEF (DAPA-HF, EMPEROR); GLP-1 RAs (semaglutide, liraglutide, dulaglutide, tirzepatide GIP/GLP-1) for ASCVD risk reduction (LEADER, SUSTAIN-6, REWIND); finerenone (nonsteroidal MRA) for DKD with albuminuria. T1DM -- multiple daily injections or pump; CGM. Thyroid -- Graves' (methimazole first-line; PTU first trimester or thyroid storm; RAI; thyroidectomy); Hashimoto's (levothyroxine; absorption affected by Ca/Fe/PPIs -- separate by 4 hours). Adrenal -- primary aldosteronism (CT, AVS); Cushing syndrome (transsphenoidal surgery for ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma); Addison disease (hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone; stress dosing). Pituitary -- prolactinoma (cabergoline), acromegaly. Hyperglycemic crises -- DKA (insulin drip 0.1 U/kg/h after K >=3.3; IV fluids; potassium correction); HHS (aggressive fluids, careful insulin and electrolytes). Obesity pharmacotherapy -- semaglutide 2.4 mg SC weekly (STEP, ~15% weight loss); tirzepatide (SURMOUNT, ~20% loss); bariatric surgery for BMI >=40 or >=35 with comorbidities. Osteoporosis -- bisphosphonates, denosumab, teriparatide, romosozumab.
Infectious Disease
Sepsis -- Surviving Sepsis Hour-1 bundle (lactate, blood cultures before antibiotics, broad-spectrum antibiotics, 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension/lactate >=4, vasopressors for MAP <65 norepinephrine first-line). Pneumonia (CAP IDSA/ATS), UTI (uncomplicated nitrofurantoin/TMP-SMX/fosfomycin per IDSA; pyelonephritis fluoroquinolone if local resistance <10%; ceftriaxone IV for moderate-severe). SSTIs -- non-purulent cellulitis cephalexin; purulent MRSA TMP-SMX/doxycycline; severe IV vancomycin. Endocarditis -- Duke criteria; empiric vancomycin + ceftriaxone or gentamicin; consider surgery for prosthetic valve, large vegetation, heart failure, embolic events. HIV -- ART universal at any CD4; INSTI-based (bictegravir/TAF/FTC or dolutegravir + 2 NRTIs preferred); OI prophylaxis (TMP-SMX for CD4 <200); IRIS. OIs -- PJP (TMP-SMX, steroids if A-a gradient >35 or PaO2 <70); cerebral toxoplasmosis (pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin); cryptococcal meningitis (induction amphotericin B + flucytosine). Hepatitis B (entecavir, tenofovir; HBV reactivation with biologics). TB -- LTBI 3HP (INH/rifapentine weekly x 12 wks) or 4R (rifampin 4 mo); active RIPE. C. difficile -- fidaxomicin or oral vancomycin first-line (IDSA 2021). Vaccinations ACIP 2026 -- influenza annually, PCV20 or PCV15 then PPSV23, RSV >=60 (shared decision), Tdap then Td every 10 yrs, Shingrix x2 doses >=50, COVID-19. Malaria -- IV artesunate for severe falciparum.
Nephrology
AKI -- KDIGO criteria; prerenal (volume depletion, sepsis, cardiorenal/hepatorenal), intrinsic (ATN from ischemia/nephrotoxins; AIN; glomerular; vascular), postrenal (obstruction). Contrast-associated AKI -- supportive; prevention with IV hydration; N-acetylcysteine evidence mixed. CKD progression -- ACEi/ARB; SGLT2 inhibitors (dapagliflozin DAPA-CKD; empagliflozin EMPA-KIDNEY) regardless of diabetes; finerenone (FIDELIO-DKD, FIGARO-DKD) for DKD with albuminuria. Electrolytes -- hyperkalemia (IV calcium for ECG changes, insulin/dextrose, beta-2 agonist, K binders, dialysis); hyponatremia (volume status, urine osm/Na; SIADH from SCLC, drugs; correct slowly <8-10 mEq/24h to avoid ODS); hypercalcemia (IV fluids, calcitonin, bisphosphonates, denosumab); acid-base (anion gap, delta-delta). Glomerulonephritis -- nephrotic syndrome workup; primary membranous (PLA2R-positive, rituximab); minimal change (steroids); FSGS; diabetic nephropathy. ADPKD -- tolvaptan to slow progression in rapid progressors. ESRD/RRT -- preemptive transplantation gold standard; HD, PD options. Urinary tract obstruction.
Hematology & Oncology
Anemia -- iron-deficiency (GI evaluation in older adults and men; oral or IV iron); B12 deficiency (oral or IM cobalamin); folate; hemolytic (Coombs+ vs -); aplastic. Multiple myeloma -- CRAB criteria (hyperCalcemia, Renal, Anemia, Bone); SPEP/UPEP/serum free light chains; triplet/quadruplet induction (e.g., daratumumab + RVd) + autologous stem cell transplant if eligible. Leukemias -- AML (induction 7+3 or HMA + venetoclax in older/unfit); ALL (pediatric-inspired regimens, CAR-T for relapsed); CLL (BTK inhibitors -- ibrutinib/acalabrutinib/zanubrutinib; venetoclax; pirtobrutinib); CML (TKIs imatinib/dasatinib/nilotinib/bosutinib/ponatinib). Lymphomas -- Hodgkin (ABVD or BV-AVD); DLBCL (R-CHOP first-line; CAR-T for relapsed). Thrombocytopenia -- ITP (steroids, IVIG, rituximab, TPO mimetics); TTP (PLEX + caplacizumab); HIT (4Ts; switch to argatroban/bivalirudin/fondaparinux). Anticoagulation -- DOACs first-line for non-valvular AF and VTE; warfarin for valvular AF, mechanical valves, APS (triple positive). Reversal -- andexanet alfa for Xa inhibitors, idarucizumab for dabigatran, 4F-PCC for warfarin. Cancer survivorship -- anthracycline cardiotoxicity, oxaliplatin neuropathy. BRCA1/2 surveillance and risk reduction. Immune-related AEs from checkpoint inhibitors.
Rheumatology
RA -- methotrexate first-line conventional DMARD; biologics (anti-TNF, anti-IL-6 tocilizumab, anti-CD20 rituximab, JAK inhibitors) for inadequate response. SLE -- hydroxychloroquine baseline for all; steroids and immunosuppressants (mycophenolate, cyclophosphamide, voclosporin for lupus nephritis; belimumab; anifrolumab) for organ involvement. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies -- ankylosing spondylitis HLA-B27, NSAIDs first-line + TNF-α (adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab) or IL-17 (secukinumab, ixekizumab) inhibitors. Psoriatic arthritis. Reactive arthritis. Vasculitis -- GCA (high-dose steroids BEFORE biopsy if vision symptoms; tocilizumab steroid-sparing), ANCA-associated (GPA, MPA, EGPA -- cyclophosphamide or rituximab induction), polyarteritis nodosa, Behçet, IgA vasculitis. Crystal arthropathies -- acute gout (NSAID, colchicine, or steroid; allopurinol/febuxostat for chronic ULT); pseudogout (CPPD). Fibromyalgia -- exercise, CBT, sleep hygiene, FDA-approved duloxetine/milnacipran/pregabalin. Polymyositis/dermatomyositis -- elevated CK, MRI, EMG, biopsy; steroids.
Neurology
Acute ischemic stroke -- IV alteplase or tenecteplase within 4.5-hour window if no contraindications; mechanical thrombectomy for LVO up to 24 hours with imaging criteria (DAWN/DEFUSE-3); BP control. TIA -- high-intensity statin, antiplatelet (DAPT short-term per CHANCE/POINT for minor stroke/high-risk TIA), anticoagulation if AF. SAH -- thunderclap headache; LP if CT negative >6h; CTA/MRA for aneurysm; nimodipine to prevent vasospasm. Seizures -- status epilepticus benzodiazepine then levetiracetam or fosphenytoin or valproate. Headache -- migraine prophylaxis (propranolol, topiramate, amitriptyline, CGRP antagonists erenumab/fremanezumab); abortive triptans/gepants/ditans. MS -- acute relapse high-dose methylprednisolone +/- PLEX; DMTs (interferon, glatiramer, fingolimod, ocrelizumab, ofatumumab). Dementia -- Alzheimer (cholinesterase inhibitors donepezil/rivastigmine/galantamine; memantine; anti-amyloid lecanemab/donanemab for early disease); Lewy body neuroleptic sensitivity. Parkinson disease -- levodopa/carbidopa, MAO-B inhibitors. Peripheral neuropathy -- diabetic, B12, alcoholic Wernicke-Korsakoff (thiamine before glucose). Anti-NMDA encephalitis -- young women, evaluate for ovarian teratoma.
Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OMM)
Four tenets of osteopathic medicine: body is a unit; self-regulatory mechanisms; structure-function reciprocal interrelationship; rational treatment based on these. OMT applications in IM -- MOPSE (Multicenter Osteopathic Pneumonia Study in the Elderly): lymphatic OMT (thoracic pump, rib raising, paraspinal inhibition, abdominal diaphragm release) reduces length of stay and antibiotic duration in elderly pneumonia. Post-operative ileus -- mesenteric lift, paraspinal inhibition T9-L2, suboccipital release for vagal tone, lymphatic techniques. Cardiac OMT -- rib raising for sympathetic input. Viscerosomatic reflexes -- cardiac T1-T5 left; lung T2-T7; small intestine T5-T9 (greater splanchnic, vagal parasympathetic); appendix T9-T12; kidney T10-L1; bladder T11-L2/S2-S4. Contraindications -- HVLA in osteoporosis, fracture, vertebral artery insufficiency, malignancy at site, acute inflammation.
General Internal Medicine & Practice Management
Periodic health exam and USPSTF screening (CRC at 45, lung CT 50-80 with 20 pack-year, AAA men 65-75 ever-smokers, breast 40-74 biennial, cervical 21-65). Preoperative risk assessment (RCRI, ACS NSQIP). SUDs -- alcohol withdrawal CIWA-Ar protocol (lorazepam/diazepam/chlordiazepoxide; thiamine BEFORE glucose to prevent Wernicke); AUD pharmacotherapy (naltrexone, acamprosate, disulfiram); OUD (buprenorphine -- X-waiver eliminated by 2022 MAT Act, methadone via OTP, naltrexone XR); tobacco (varenicline, bupropion, combination NRT). Geriatric care -- Beers Criteria avoid benzodiazepines/anticholinergics/long-acting hypnotics; falls prevention (exercise USPSTF Grade B); polypharmacy and deprescribing. Palliative care -- early integration in advanced disease improves quality of life. Medical ethics -- capacity vs competency, informed consent, advance directives, surrogate decision-making. SJS/TEN (anticonvulsants, sulfa, allopurinol; stop drug; supportive care +/- IVIG/cyclosporine).
How to Pass the AOBIM Internal Medicine Exam
What You Need to Know
- Passing score: Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scaled scoring)
- Exam length: 320 questions
- Time limit: ~8 hours (4 sections × 2 hours; ~8h 50m seat time)
- Exam fee: $800 application fee (AOBIM 2026 Written Exam)
Keys to Passing
- Complete 500+ practice questions
- Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
- Focus on highest-weighted sections
- Use our AI tutor for tough concepts
AOBIM Internal Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the AOBIM Internal Medicine Certifying Examination?
The AOBIM Internal Medicine Certifying Examination is the primary osteopathic board certification exam administered by the American Osteopathic Board of Internal Medicine (AOBIM), an AOA Specialty Certifying Board partnered with the American College of Osteopathic Internists (ACOI). The Written Exam is a remote-proctored, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice exam of 320 scored items divided into four sections of 80 questions each over approximately 8 hours of testing time. Content reflects the full breadth of internal medicine practice including cardiology, pulmonary, GI/hepatology, endocrinology, infectious disease, nephrology, hematology/oncology, rheumatology, neurology, and osteopathic principles and practice (~1-4% OMM/OPP content).
Who is eligible to sit for the AOBIM exam?
Candidates must have satisfactorily completed an AOA- or ACGME-accredited Internal Medicine residency (typically 12-month internship plus 36 months IM training under AOA standards), hold a valid unrestricted medical license, adhere to the AOA Code of Ethics, and submit a Program Director's Report demonstrating clinical competence. The Early Entry pathway through ACOI allows candidates to take the exam during the final year of residency. Applications are submitted through the AOBIM within the eligibility window.
What is the format and length of the exam?
The Written Exam consists of 320 scored single-best-answer multiple-choice questions divided into four sections of 80 questions each, with each section allotted 2 hours, for approximately 8 hours of testing time (total seat time ~8 hours 50 minutes). The exam is delivered via remote-proctored platform. Osteopathic content is integrated throughout other clinical questions.
How much does the 2026 AOBIM exam cost?
The 2026 AOBIM Internal Medicine Written Exam application fee is $800. Applications submitted after the application deadline incur a $240 non-refundable late fee. Continuing certification under AOA Osteopathic Continuous Certification (OCC) includes Component 3 Cognitive Assessment (longitudinal or proctored exam) with associated annual fees. Retakes within the eligibility window require full re-registration and fee payment. Verify current fees on the AOBIM website.
When is the AOBIM exam administered?
The AOBIM Written Exam is offered twice yearly via remote-proctored platform -- an early-entry exam in March (e.g., March 4-6, 2026 in recent years) and a fall exam in September (e.g., September 16-18, 2026). Application periods open 6-8 months before each administration with strict deadlines. Exact 2026 dates are published on the AOBIM Important Dates page.
How is the AOBIM exam scored?
The AOBIM uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system on a 200-800 scale with a passing score of 500. Pass/fail is determined relative to the cut score set by the AOBIM examination committee, not against other candidates. Score reports include subdomain feedback. The five-year aggregate first-time pass rate is 93.62%.
How does AOBIM differ from ABIM?
AOBIM is the osteopathic board certification (AOA), while ABIM is the allopathic board certification (ABMS). Many DO internal medicine residents are eligible for either or both depending on residency accreditation. AOBIM includes integrated osteopathic principles and practice (~1-4% OMM/OPP) and uses a 320-item exam in four sections with scaled scoring 200-800 (passing 500). ABIM uses a single-day computer-based test of ~240 items with criterion-referenced pass/fail. Both require completion of an ACGME-accredited 3-year Internal Medicine residency.
How should I study for the AOBIM exam?
Use an 18-24 month study plan during PGY-2 and PGY-3. Use the In-Training Examination (ITE) annually as a benchmark. Core resources include MKSAP (ACP), MedStudy Internal Medicine Review, Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, ACOI Board Review Course, Foundations of Osteopathic Medicine (Chila), and TrueLearn or BoardVitals question banks. Map your study to the major content domains (cardiology, pulmonary, GI, endocrine, ID, nephrology, heme/onc, rheumatology, neurology, general IM, OMM). Drill high-volume MCQs with timed sets and complete 2-3 full-length timed 8-hour mock exams during the final 12 weeks.