100+ Free AOBP Pediatrics Practice Questions
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A 10-year-old presents with new-onset proteinuria (3+) and edema. Urinalysis shows >3.5 g/day proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia (alb 2.5), and hyperlipidemia. He has bland urinary sediment. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Key Facts: AOBP Pediatrics Exam
~400
Total Scored Items
AOBP Pediatrics Written Exam (8 sessions × 50)
$1,700
2026 Application Fee
AOBP Pediatrics Written Exam fee
500
Passing Scaled Score
AOA 200-800 criterion-referenced scaled scoring
98.83%
5-Year First-Time Pass Rate
AOBP Pediatrics Written Exam aggregate
3%
OMM/OPP Content Weight
AOBP integrated osteopathic principles content
3-Year
Required Residency
ACGME-accredited Pediatrics residency
The AOBP Pediatrics Certifying Examination is a remote-proctored ~400-item single-best-answer MCQ exam delivered in 8 sessions of 50 questions over approximately 8 hours of testing (60 minutes per session). The 2026 blueprint covers general pediatrics and prevention (~15%), infectious diseases (~12-14%), neonatology (~10-12%), cardiology (~7-9%), pulmonology/allergy (~6-8%), gastroenterology (~6-8%), endocrinology (~5-7%), heme/onc (~5-7%), rheumatology/immunology (~4-6%), neurology (~4-6%), nephrology (~3-5%), developmental-behavioral and adolescent medicine (~6-8%), and OMM/OPP (~3%). Scaled scoring 200-800 with passing score 500. 2026 application fee is $1,700. Five-year aggregate first-time pass rate is 98.83%. Requires 3-year ACGME-accredited pediatric residency.
Sample AOBP Pediatrics Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your AOBP Pediatrics exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 6-month-old former full-term infant is brought for a well-child check. The mother asks when she should introduce solid foods. Per AAP and current guidance, what is the most appropriate recommendation?
2A 4-year-old presents with sudden-onset barky cough, hoarseness, and stridor at rest. Temperature 38.5°C, RR 30, SpO2 95%. He appears anxious but alert. What is the most appropriate management?
3A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a well-child visit. Per ACIP routine immunization schedule, which combination of vaccines is appropriate at this visit?
4A 2-year-old presents with 24 hours of fever (39.2°C), nasal congestion, ear pulling, and irritability. Otoscopy shows a bulging, erythematous right tympanic membrane with diminished mobility. What is the diagnosis and first-line therapy?
5A 7-day-old neonate is brought to the ED with poor feeding, lethargy, and a temperature of 38.5°C (rectal). What is the appropriate evaluation and management?
6A 4-year-old presents with cough, fever, hoarseness, and a brassy cough. Lateral neck x-ray shows narrowing of the subglottic airway (steeple sign). What is the diagnosis?
7A 6-month-old presents with bilateral conjunctivitis, swollen hands and feet, fever for 7 days, polymorphous rash, strawberry tongue, and unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy >1.5 cm. What is the appropriate diagnosis and treatment?
8A 10-year-old presents with 5 days of fever, malar rash, oral ulcers, photosensitivity, and joint pain. Labs: ANA positive 1:640, anti-dsDNA elevated, complement low (C3 and C4), urinalysis with proteinuria and RBC casts. What is the diagnosis and immediate management?
9A 12-year-old has unintentional weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue, and a recent fruit-scented breath. Random glucose 480 mg/dL, ketones positive, pH 7.20, anion gap 22, bicarbonate 14. What is the diagnosis and immediate management?
10A 6-week-old infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting after feeds for 1 week, weight loss, and a palpable olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant. Labs: hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. What is the diagnosis and management?
About the AOBP Pediatrics Exam
The AOBP Pediatrics Certifying Examination is the primary osteopathic board certification exam administered by the American Osteopathic Board of Pediatrics, an AOA Specialty Certifying Board partnered with the American College of Osteopathic Pediatricians (ACOP). The Pediatrics Written Exam is a remote-proctored, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice exam of approximately 400 items delivered in 8 sessions of 50 questions each over approximately 8 hours of testing time (60 minutes per session, 480 minutes total). Many questions use visual images. Content reflects the full breadth of general pediatrics including general pediatrics and preventive care (~15%), infectious diseases (~12-14%), neonatology and newborn care (~10-12%), cardiology (~7-9%), pulmonology and allergy (~6-8%), gastroenterology (~6-8%), endocrinology (~5-7%), hematology/oncology (~5-7%), rheumatology and immunology (~4-6%), neurology (~4-6%), nephrology (~3-5%), developmental-behavioral and adolescent medicine (~6-8%), and osteopathic principles and practice (~3% OMM/OPP). Requires graduation from a COCA- or LCME-accredited medical school and completion of a 3-year ACGME-accredited pediatric residency.
Questions
400 scored questions
Time Limit
~8 hours (8 sessions × 60 min, 50 Qs each)
Passing Score
Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scaled scoring)
Exam Fee
$1,700 application fee (AOBP 2026 Pediatrics Written Exam) (American Osteopathic Board of Pediatrics (AOBP) -- remote-proctored CBT)
AOBP Pediatrics Exam Content Outline
General Pediatrics & Preventive Care
Well-child care visits per Bright Futures (newborn, 3-5 days, 2 weeks, 1/2/4/6/9/12/15/18/24 months, then annual). Growth monitoring (WHO 0-2 years, CDC ≥2 years). Developmental milestones (CDC 'Learn the Signs Act Early'). AAP/ACIP routine immunization schedule (DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV20 or PCV15+PPSV23, RV, HepB, MMR at 12-15 months, varicella, HepA, HPV starting at 9-12 years (catchup through 26), Tdap at 11-12, MenACWY at 11-12 with booster at 16, MenB shared decision-making, influenza annually, COVID-19 per current ACIP, RSV prevention -- nirsevimab for infants <8 mo entering RSV season or maternal RSV vaccine 32-36 weeks). Anticipatory guidance (car seats, swimming, firearms, sleep safety, screen time). Screening -- lead, vision and hearing, M-CHAT-R/F autism at 18 and 24 months. Child abuse and abusive head trauma identification (subdural hematomas of varying ages, retinal hemorrhages -- mandatory CPS report). SIDS prevention (supine sleep, firm flat surface, room-share without bed-sharing). Adolescent confidentiality framework.
Infectious Diseases
Common pediatric infections: AOM (high-dose amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day BID first-line; cefdinir/clindamycin alternatives; watchful waiting for ≥2 yr non-severe unilateral disease per AAP). Croup (dexamethasone + nebulized racemic epinephrine; steeple sign). Bronchiolitis (RSV -- supportive care per AAP; AVOID routine bronchodilators/steroids/antibiotics/chest PT; nirsevimab and maternal RSV vaccine for prevention). Pertussis (paroxysmal cough, whoop, post-tussive vomiting; macrolide; PEP for close contacts). Viral exanthems (measles -- Koplik spots + 3 Cs, public health report; roseola HHV-6/7; fifth disease parvovirus B19 'slapped cheek'; varicella; HFM Coxsackie A16). Kawasaki disease (IVIG 2 g/kg + high-dose aspirin; echo at diagnosis and 6-8 weeks). Bacterial meningitis (vancomycin + ceftriaxone; dexamethasone for H. influenzae). Septic arthritis (surgical drainage + IV antibiotics). Neonatal sepsis (≤28 days -- FULL workup + ampicillin + gentamicin/cefotaxime). Pediatric UTI (per AAP imaging guidelines). Congenital infections TORCH (toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, herpes, syphilis). Primary immunodeficiencies: SCID (newborn TREC screen, urgent referral, stem cell transplant), XLA (recurrent encapsulated bacterial after 6 months, IVIG), DiGeorge, hyper-IgE.
Neonatology & Newborn Care
Newborn nursery (APGAR, neonatal exam, vitamin K, ophthalmic erythromycin, HepB-1, hearing screen, congenital heart screen, newborn metabolic and TREC SCID screen). Transient tachypnea of newborn (resolves 24-48 hours). RDS in preterm (surfactant). Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC -- pneumatosis intestinalis, NPO + IV antibiotics + surgical consult). IVH grading (head US). ROP screening in preterm. Neonatal jaundice (AAP nomogram for phototherapy and exchange transfusion thresholds by gestational age, hours, and risk). Neonatal sepsis (GBS, E. coli, Listeria; ampicillin + gentamicin/cefotaxime). CHD presentations -- cyanotic (TGA 'egg on a string', ToF 'boot-shaped heart' and 'tet spells', tricuspid atresia, TAPVR, truncus -- start PGE1 for ductal-dependent), acyanotic (VSD, ASD, PDA -- pharmacologic closure with indomethacin/ibuprofen in preterm; transcatheter device closure). Hyperoxia test (cyanotic CHD if no improvement on 100% O2). Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS -- Finnegan scoring, morphine/methadone). Polycythemia (Hct >65-70% with symptoms -- partial exchange transfusion). Neonatal surgical conditions -- duodenal atresia ('double bubble', Down syndrome), malrotation with midgut volvulus ('corkscrew' UGI series, surgical emergency), pyloric stenosis (4-6 weeks projectile vomiting, olive mass, hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis -- pyloromyotomy after fluid correction), Hirschsprung (failure to pass meconium, rectal biopsy diagnostic).
Cardiology
Congenital heart disease anatomy and physiology. Acyanotic: VSD (most common; small VSDs often close spontaneously), ASD (fixed split S2), PDA (continuous machine-like murmur; indomethacin/ibuprofen in preterm; device closure if persistent), coarctation of aorta (BP discrepancy upper vs lower extremities; Turner syndrome association). Cyanotic: TGA (presents day 1 with cyanosis not responsive to O2; PGE1, balloon atrial septostomy, arterial switch), tetralogy of Fallot (RVOT obstruction, VSD, overriding aorta, RVH; 'tet spells' managed with knee-chest, O2, morphine, fluids, phenylephrine), tricuspid atresia, TAPVR ('snowman' sign), truncus arteriosus, hypoplastic left heart. Innocent murmurs (Still murmur, venous hum). Pathologic murmurs require evaluation. Kawasaki disease coronary involvement (Z-score ≥2.5 -- IVIG + aspirin; long-term follow-up). Rheumatic fever (Jones criteria -- major: migratory polyarthritis, carditis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules; minor: fever, arthralgia, elevated ESR/CRP, prolonged PR; evidence of preceding GAS). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (most common cause of SCD in young athletes; echo for screening; HCM Risk-SCD score for ICD). Arrhythmias (SVT -- vagal maneuvers then adenosine; LQTS; WPW). Pediatric hypertension (AAP 2017 percentile-based by age/sex/height). 14-element AHA sports preparticipation screening.
Pulmonology & Allergy
Asthma per GINA pediatric -- daily low-dose ICS first-line for persistent disease; SABA + low-dose ICS for intermittent; ICS/LABA for moderate; biologics for severe (omalizumab anti-IgE allergic ≥6 years; mepolizumab anti-IL-5 ≥6 with eosinophilic; dupilumab anti-IL-4Rα ≥6; benralizumab/tezepelumab ≥12). Cystic fibrosis (sweat chloride >60; CFTR modulators -- ELEXACAFTOR/TEZACAFTOR/IVACAFTOR (Trikafta) for ≥2 years with F508del has transformed care; pancreatic enzyme replacement; airway clearance; multidisciplinary CF center). Bronchiolitis (RSV peaks fall-spring; AAP -- supportive care, AVOID routine bronchodilators/steroids/antibiotics; admit for severe distress/hypoxia/dehydration; nirsevimab and maternal RSV vaccine for prevention). Pediatric pneumonia (CAP -- amoxicillin first-line per AAP for typical bacterial; macrolide for atypical). Pertussis (whooping cough; macrolide; vaccinate with Tdap during pregnancy 27-36 weeks). Allergic rhinitis (intranasal corticosteroid most effective). Anaphylaxis (epinephrine IM 0.01 mg/kg lateral thigh; max 0.3 mg pediatric, 0.5 mg adult; biphasic reactions; auto-injectors). Atopic dermatitis (emollients, topical steroids, topical calcineurin inhibitors; dupilumab for moderate-severe). Food allergy -- LEAP and EAT studies support EARLY introduction of allergens (peanut at 4-6 months in high-risk infants reduces allergy by 80%).
Gastroenterology
Functional constipation (PEG 3350 Miralax for disimpaction and maintenance; behavioral; high fiber). Hirschsprung disease (failure to pass meconium <48 hours, chronic constipation, empty rectal vault with explosive 'squirt sign', contrast enema transition zone, rectal suction biopsy ABSENT ganglion cells, surgical pull-through). Pyloric stenosis (4-6 weeks projectile non-bilious vomiting, olive mass, hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis; US confirms; pyloromyotomy after fluid/electrolyte correction). Intussusception (age 3 months-3 years; paroxysmal pain, currant jelly stools, sausage-shaped mass, US target/donut sign; air enema reduction ~85-90% success). Meckel diverticulum ('Rule of 2s', painless lower GI bleeding; Tc-99m pertechnetate scan). Malrotation with midgut volvulus (bilious vomiting in neonate -- SURGICAL EMERGENCY; UGI corkscrew sign; Ladd procedure). Celiac disease (tTG-IgA + total IgA; upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsy; gluten-free diet for life). Pediatric IBD -- Crohn (EEN exclusive enteral nutrition first-line for induction in pediatrics, immunomodulators, anti-TNF biologics infliximab/adalimumab, anti-IL-12/23 ustekinumab/risankizumab); UC (mesalamine 5-ASA first-line, step-up to steroids and biologics). Physiologic GER in infants (conservative management; AVOID PPIs without complications). Infantile colic ('Rule of 3s' -- >3 hr/day, >3 days/week, >3 weeks in well infant; parental support, soothing). Abdominal pain (functional vs organic; appendicitis diagnostic US/laparoscopic appendectomy).
Endocrinology
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (autoimmune insulin deficiency; presents with polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss; A1c <7% goal; insulin basal-bolus 0.5 U/kg/day total; CGM and pump therapy increasingly standard). DKA in children (hyperglycemia + ketones + acidosis pH <7.3; IV NS, then insulin drip 0.05-0.1 U/kg/h after K replete; cautious K replacement; monitor closely for CEREBRAL EDEMA -- pediatric-specific risk, mannitol or hypertonic saline if suspected). Type 2 diabetes (rising in adolescents with obesity; metformin first-line; lifestyle). Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (21-hydroxylase deficiency most common; classic ambiguous genitalia in female newborns, salt-wasting; elevated 17-OHP; treatment hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone with stress dosing; non-classic presents in adolescence with hyperandrogenism). Hashimoto thyroiditis (acquired primary hypothyroidism; levothyroxine; anti-TPO antibodies). Congenital hypothyroidism (newborn screen; levothyroxine ASAP to prevent intellectual disability). Turner syndrome (45,X; short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, bicuspid AV/coarctation; GH for short stature, estrogen for puberty induction; routine surveillance). Klinefelter (47,XXY). Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS, 46,XY female phenotype, blind vagina, no axillary/pubic hair). Precocious puberty (before age 8 girls/9 boys; MRI brain; GnRH analog -- leuprolide depot, histrelin implant). Adolescent PCOS (hyperandrogenism + irregular menses; lifestyle, metformin, OCPs).
Hematology & Oncology
Iron-deficiency anemia (most common pediatric anemia; supplementation; screen at 12 months). B12 deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (G6PD deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis). Sickle cell disease (HbSS): penicillin prophylaxis from 2 months to age 5 (functional asplenia/pneumococcal sepsis prevention); pneumococcal vaccines (PCV20, PPSV23) and meningococcal; hydroxyurea starting at 9 months (BABY HUG); folate; multidisciplinary care; manage acute crises (vaso-occlusive, acute chest syndrome -- transfusion, antibiotics, oxygen; splenic sequestration -- urgent transfusion; aplastic -- parvovirus B19, supportive). ITP (isolated thrombocytopenia, often post-viral; observation if mild, steroids/IVIG for active bleeding). Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency; prophylactic factor VIII or emicizumab bispecific antibody; avoid IM injections and NSAIDs). HUS (Shiga toxin-producing E. coli O157:H7 -- supportive care; AVOID ANTIBIOTICS in typical HUS as they may worsen disease; eculizumab for atypical HUS). HSP/IgA vasculitis (palpable purpura lower extremities, arthritis, abdominal pain, renal involvement; supportive +/- steroids; monitor renal long-term). Pediatric oncology: ALL (B-cell most common; multi-agent COG chemotherapy with risk stratification; CNS prophylaxis intrathecal methotrexate; 85% cure; CAR-T for relapsed); AML (induction or HMA + venetoclax); Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma, age 2-5, abdominal mass); neuroblastoma (most common extracranial solid tumor, abdominal/adrenal mass, urine VMA/HVA); medulloblastoma (most common malignant brain tumor, posterior fossa); Hodgkin lymphoma (adolescents; ABVD/AHOD; >90% cure); rhabdomyosarcoma. Febrile neutropenia (medical emergency -- broad-spectrum IV antibiotics within 60 minutes).
Rheumatology & Immunology
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA, age <16, >=6 weeks): oligoarticular (≤4 joints, ANA+ associated with asymptomatic uveitis -- slit lamp every 3 months screening; NSAIDs and intra-articular steroid injections first-line); polyarticular (≥5 joints; RF+ resembles adult RA -- methotrexate first-line, biologics anti-TNF/IL-6/JAK); systemic (Still disease -- fever, evanescent rash, hepatosplenomegaly, MAS macrophage activation syndrome; anti-IL-1/IL-6 biologics); enthesitis-related; psoriatic. Pediatric SLE (ACR/EULAR criteria; lupus nephritis common; hydroxychloroquine baseline; immunosuppression for organ involvement -- mycophenolate, cyclophosphamide, rituximab, voclosporin, belimumab, anifrolumab). HSP (IgA vasculitis -- discussed in heme). Dermatomyositis (proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash, Gottron papules, elevated CK; high-dose steroids + immunomodulators). Vasculitis -- Kawasaki, polyarteritis nodosa, ANCA-associated, Takayasu. Primary immunodeficiencies (discussed in ID): SCID newborn screen, XLA Bruton, DiGeorge, hyper-IgE Job, CVID, complement deficiencies, chronic granulomatous disease. Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
Neurology
Febrile seizures (simple: ≤15 min, generalized, single in 24 hours, normal neuro exam, age 6 mo-5 yr; AAP -- routine LP NOT indicated in well-appearing >12 months without meningitis signs; routine EEG/MRI NOT indicated; no chronic anticonvulsant; complex: >15 min, focal, or recurrent in 24 hours -- consider further workup if any concerning features). West syndrome (infantile spasms, onset 3-12 months; triad of spasms + hypsarrhythmia on EEG + developmental regression; ACTH IM, oral high-dose corticosteroid, vigabatrin first-line for tuberous sclerosis; pediatric neurology). Absence epilepsy (3 Hz generalized spike-wave on EEG; ethosuximide first-line). Benign rolandic epilepsy. Migraine. Cerebral palsy (multidisciplinary; PT/OT, intrathecal baclofen for spasticity, botulinum toxin). Concussion (gradual return-to-play protocol). Abusive head trauma (mandatory reporting). Guillain-Barré syndrome (ascending weakness, areflexia, CSF albuminocytologic dissociation; IVIG or PLEX; monitor respiratory, autonomic; ICU if severe). Cerebellar ataxia. Posterior fossa tumors (medulloblastoma -- morning headache, vomiting, ataxia, papilledema). Neonatal seizures (different etiology and treatment than adults).
Nephrology
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN): nephritic syndrome (hematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, proteinuria, edema) 1-3 weeks after GAS pharyngitis or skin infection; elevated ASO/anti-DNase B titer; LOW C3; supportive care (BP control with CCB or ACEi/ARB, fluid/sodium restriction); usually self-resolves with C3 normalization in 6-8 weeks. Minimal change disease (most common cause of pediatric nephrotic syndrome ~80%; bland urinary sediment, selective proteinuria; EMPIRIC PREDNISONE 60 mg/m2/day for 4-6 weeks; biopsy NOT routinely required in initial presentation; steroid-resistant warrants biopsy for FSGS or other diagnoses). FSGS (more common in adolescents and African-American; steroid-dependent or resistant; calcineurin inhibitors). HSP nephritis (monitor with UA/BP/creatinine). Pediatric UTI per AAP 2011 (reaffirmed): oral antibiotics (cephalexin, TMP-SMX, amoxicillin-clavulanate per local sensitivities) for uncomplicated; renal/bladder US for all febrile UTIs in 2-24 months; VCUG only for recurrent UTI or specific findings (abnormal US, atypical UTI). Pediatric hypertension (AAP 2017 percentile-based BP for age/sex/height; >=95th percentile).
Developmental-Behavioral & Adolescent Medicine
Developmental milestones (CDC ages 2 mo to 5 years -- 'Learn the Signs Act Early'). Autism spectrum disorder: M-CHAT-R/F at 18 and 24 months for autism screening (positive screen -- refer for comprehensive evaluation and early intervention services); diagnosis by DSM-5 criteria; treatment -- applied behavioral analysis (ABA), speech therapy, OT; risperidone and aripiprazole FDA-approved for irritability/aggression associated with autism (start low, monitor metabolic). ADHD per AAP 2019: behavioral parent training first-line under age 6; behavioral therapy + stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine classes) first-line 6-12; non-stimulants atomoxetine, guanfacine ER, clonidine ER. Speech and language delay (refer for SLP evaluation and early intervention). Eating disorders -- anorexia nervosa (inpatient medical stabilization if bradycardia, hypotension, electrolytes; cautious refeeding to prevent refeeding syndrome -- hypophosphatemia/hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia; family-based therapy Maudsley first-line for adolescents); bulimia (fluoxetine FDA-approved); ARFID. Adolescent depression (fluoxetine and escitalopram FDA-approved -- start low, monitor for suicidality first 4 weeks, FDA boxed warning; combined with CBT or IPT per TADS). Self-harm/NSSI (non-judgmental assessment; refer for mental health; DBT effective). Bipolar disorder. Adolescent confidentiality (state-specific; sensitive services -- sexual/reproductive, mental health, substance use; mandatory reporting if abuse, imminent safety risk). Adolescent sexual health -- LARC + condom dual protection; HPV vaccination starting at age 9-12 (2-dose series if <15); HIV/STI screening; PrEP for high-risk; emergency contraception. Substance use (CRAFFT screening; SUD treatment).
Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OMM)
Four tenets of osteopathic medicine applied to pediatric care: (1) body is a unit; (2) self-regulatory mechanisms; (3) structure-function reciprocal interrelationship; (4) rational treatment based on these. Pediatric OMT considerations: use gentle, age-appropriate techniques; indirect techniques (counterstrain, BLT, FPR), myofascial release, and cranial-respiratory motion are preferred over HVLA in young children; gentle articulatory techniques are also appropriate. Pediatric applications: otitis media with effusion (Galbreath mandibular drainage, Muncie intra-oral, suboccipital release, lymphatic techniques -- may improve eustachian tube function); constipation (visceral techniques); colic (myofascial release, suboccipital decompression); post-respiratory infections (lymphatic pump, rib raising, thoracic inlet release); somatic dysfunction. Contraindications -- HVLA in acute fracture, severe osteoporosis (rare in peds), malignancy at site, active infection at site. OMT integrates with standard evidence-based pediatric care; never replaces antibiotics or other indicated therapies.
How to Pass the AOBP Pediatrics Exam
What You Need to Know
- Passing score: Scaled score of 500 or higher (AOA 200-800 scaled scoring)
- Exam length: 400 questions
- Time limit: ~8 hours (8 sessions × 60 min, 50 Qs each)
- Exam fee: $1,700 application fee (AOBP 2026 Pediatrics Written Exam)
Keys to Passing
- Complete 500+ practice questions
- Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
- Focus on highest-weighted sections
- Use our AI tutor for tough concepts
AOBP Pediatrics Study Tips from Top Performers
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the AOBP Pediatrics Certifying Examination?
The AOBP Pediatrics Certifying Examination is the primary osteopathic board certification exam administered by the American Osteopathic Board of Pediatrics (AOBP), an AOA Specialty Certifying Board partnered with the American College of Osteopathic Pediatricians (ACOP). The Pediatrics Written Exam is a remote-proctored, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice exam of approximately 400 items delivered in 8 sessions of 50 questions each over approximately 8 hours (60 minutes per session). Many questions include visual images. Content reflects the full breadth of general pediatrics from newborn care through adolescent medicine, including osteopathic principles and practice (~3% OMM/OPP integrated content).
Who is eligible to sit for the AOBP exam?
Candidates must have graduated from a COCA- or LCME-accredited medical school and completed a 3-year ACGME-accredited Pediatrics residency. Third-year residents may apply when they have at least 30 months of residency completed or 80% of rotations. Candidates must hold a valid unrestricted medical license and adhere to the AOA Code of Ethics. Applications are submitted through the AOBP within the eligibility window.
What is the format and length of the exam?
The Pediatrics Written Exam consists of approximately 400 scored single-best-answer multiple-choice questions divided into 8 sessions of 50 questions each, with each session timed at 60 minutes (total 480 minutes / 8 hours of testing time). The exam is delivered via remote-proctored platform. Many items utilize visual images (photographs, radiographs, ECGs, peripheral smears, fundus photos). Osteopathic content is integrated throughout other clinical questions.
How much does the 2026 AOBP exam cost?
The 2026 AOBP Pediatrics Written Exam application fee is $1,700. Continuing certification under AOA Osteopathic Continuous Certification (OCC) includes Component 3 Cognitive Assessment for General Pediatrics -- now also offered as a Longitudinal Assessment with associated annual fees. Retakes within the eligibility window require full re-registration and fee payment. Always verify current fees on the AOBP website.
When is the AOBP exam administered?
The AOBP Pediatrics Written Exam is offered each spring as a remote-proctored examination. The application period opens in the preceding September. Exact 2026 dates and application deadlines are published on the AOBP Important Dates page (certification.osteopathic.org/pediatrics/important-dates).
How is the AOBP exam scored?
The AOBP uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system on a 200-800 scale with a passing score of 500. Pass/fail is determined relative to the cut score set by the AOBP examination committee, not against other candidates. Score reports include subdomain feedback for failed candidates to guide remediation. The five-year aggregate first-time pass rate is 98.83%.
What is on the AOBP exam (high-yield topics)?
High-yield content: AAP/ACIP routine immunization schedule (including HPV 9-12, RSV nirsevimab, maternal RSV vaccine), Bright Futures well-child care, AAP guidelines for AOM (high-dose amoxicillin) and bronchiolitis (supportive care, no routine bronchodilators), neonatal jaundice (AAP nomogram), DKA in children (cerebral edema risk), congenital heart disease (cyanotic ductal-dependent lesions -- start PGE1), Kawasaki disease (IVIG + aspirin), pyloric stenosis (4-6 wks projectile vomiting, hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis), intussusception (currant jelly stools, air enema), malrotation with volvulus (bilious vomiting -- surgical emergency), sickle cell disease (penicillin prophylaxis to age 5, hydroxyurea), childhood ALL (multi-agent chemo, 85% cure), febrile seizures (AAP -- no routine LP/EEG/MRI for simple), West syndrome (vigabatrin or ACTH), M-CHAT-R/F autism screening, ADHD AAP 2019 (behavioral + stimulants 6-12), anorexia nervosa (refeeding syndrome -- hypophosphatemia), adolescent depression (fluoxetine FDA-approved).
How should I study for the AOBP exam?
Use an 18-24 month study plan during PGY-2 and PGY-3. Use the AAP PREP self-assessment annually as benchmark. Core resources include Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, AAP Red Book (infectious diseases), AAP PREP The Curriculum, Pediatric Board Review, AAP Bright Futures, ACOP/AOBP review courses, Foundations of Osteopathic Medicine (Chila) for OPP content, and TrueLearn or BoardVitals pediatric question banks. Map your study to the major content domains (general pediatrics, infectious diseases, neonatology, cardiology, pulmonary, GI, endocrinology, heme/onc, rheumatology, neurology, nephrology, developmental-behavioral/adolescent, OMM). Drill high-volume MCQs with timed sets and complete 2-3 full-length timed 8-hour mock exams during the final 8-12 weeks.