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100+ Free AOBOS Orthopedics Practice Questions

Pass your AOBOS Orthopedic Surgery Certifying Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Which is the most appropriate management of a closed midshaft humerus fracture with good alignment?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AOBOS Orthopedics Exam

250 MCQs

AOBOS Part I Written

AOBOS 2026

April 29, 2026

Part I Exam Date

AOBOS

$1,000

Part I Exam Fee

AOBOS 2026

Scaled 500

Minimum Passing Score

AOA 200-800 scale

5 years

Residency Required

AOA/ACGME

$500

AOAO Reimbursement

AOAO member resident benefit

The AOBOS Part I Written Exam is the AOA pathway to orthopedic surgery certification, paralleling ABOS Part I. The 250-question exam ($1,000 fee) is delivered remotely in three 120-minute sections on April 29, 2026, scored on the AOA 200-800 scale (passing 500). AOAO offers a $500 reimbursement to 4th/5th-year resident members. AOA orthopedic surgeons enjoy compensation comparable to ABOS-certified peers, with strong demand in academic and community settings.

Sample AOBOS Orthopedics Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AOBOS Orthopedics exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 25-year-old man presents 3 hours after a motorcycle crash with an open midshaft tibia fracture (Gustilo-Anderson type IIIA). The most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen includes:
A.Vancomycin alone
B.First-generation cephalosporin (e.g., cefazolin) within 1 hour
C.Daptomycin alone
D.No antibiotics until cultures return
Explanation: Open fractures require a first-generation cephalosporin within 1 hour of presentation to reduce infection risk. Type III injuries add an aminoglycoside; farm injuries add penicillin for clostridial coverage. Tetanus status must be addressed.
2Which of the following best describes a Salter-Harris type II fracture?
A.Fracture through the physis only
B.Fracture through the physis and metaphysis (Thurston-Holland fragment)
C.Fracture through the physis and epiphysis
D.Crush injury to the physis
Explanation: Salter-Harris type II is the most common pediatric physeal injury, with a fracture line through the physis exiting into the metaphysis (Thurston-Holland fragment). Closed reduction is usually possible. Type V (crush) has the worst growth prognosis.
3A 65-year-old man has worsening axial low back pain with radiation to the buttocks, exacerbated by walking and relieved by sitting/leaning forward. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.Cauda equina syndrome
B.Lumbar spinal stenosis with neurogenic claudication
C.Vertebral compression fracture
D.Diskitis
Explanation: Neurogenic claudication is a hallmark of lumbar stenosis: pain worsened by extension/walking and relieved by flexion (e.g., shopping cart sign). MRI confirms canal narrowing. Initial therapy is conservative; laminectomy is reserved for refractory cases.
4Which of the following is the most common pediatric elbow fracture?
A.Lateral condyle fracture
B.Medial epicondyle fracture
C.Supracondylar humerus fracture
D.Radial neck fracture
Explanation: Supracondylar humerus fractures (Gartland classification) are the most common pediatric elbow fracture, typically from a fall on outstretched hand with hyperextension. Type III displaced fractures need urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. Median nerve and brachial artery injury must be assessed.
5A 30-year-old soccer player has an inversion ankle sprain with lateral tenderness. He cannot bear weight 4 steps. Which Ottawa rule action is most appropriate?
A.No imaging needed
B.Ankle radiographs
C.Stress radiographs only
D.MRI ankle
Explanation: Ottawa ankle rules indicate ankle X-rays for pain in the malleolar zone and either tenderness at the posterior 6 cm or tip of the medial/lateral malleolus, or inability to bear weight immediately and in the ER (4 steps). High sensitivity reduces unnecessary imaging.
6Which is the most appropriate initial management of a closed, displaced femoral neck fracture in a 75-year-old active patient?
A.Closed reduction and casting
B.Hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty
C.Conservative management
D.ORIF with screws only
Explanation: Displaced femoral neck fractures in elderly patients have high rates of nonunion and AVN if managed with internal fixation. Total hip arthroplasty is preferred in active elderly patients with longer life expectancy; hemiarthroplasty is suitable for less active patients.
7Which of the following findings is most diagnostic for ACL tear?
A.Painful arc test
B.Positive Lachman test
C.Positive McMurray test
D.Apprehension test
Explanation: The Lachman test is the most sensitive examination for ACL injury. The anterior drawer and pivot shift are also useful. MRI is the gold standard imaging study.
8Which of the following injuries is most concerning for a posterior knee dislocation?
A.Femoral artery laceration
B.Popliteal artery injury and risk of limb ischemia
C.Common peroneal nerve injury only
D.Patellar tendon rupture
Explanation: Posterior knee dislocation has a high rate of popliteal artery injury due to vessel tethering at the adductor hiatus and soleal arch. ABI <0.9 mandates CT angiography. Untreated, this leads to limb-threatening ischemia.
9A 40-year-old laborer has shoulder pain with overhead activities. Examination shows positive Hawkins and Neer impingement signs with weakness on empty can test. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.Adhesive capsulitis
B.Rotator cuff tendinopathy or partial-thickness tear of supraspinatus
C.AC joint arthritis
D.Acromioclavicular separation
Explanation: Positive Hawkins, Neer, and empty can tests with overhead weakness localize pain to the supraspinatus and impingement region. MRI confirms tendinopathy or partial tear. Physical therapy is initial management; surgery is reserved for refractory disease.
10Which finding suggests cauda equina syndrome and requires emergent MRI?
A.Unilateral radiculopathy without bladder symptoms
B.Saddle anesthesia and urinary retention with bilateral leg weakness
C.Acute mechanical low back pain only
D.Pain relieved by Valsalva
Explanation: Cauda equina syndrome (saddle anesthesia, urinary retention/incontinence, fecal incontinence, bilateral leg weakness, sexual dysfunction) is a surgical emergency. Emergent MRI followed by decompression within 24-48 hours minimizes permanent neurologic deficit.

About the AOBOS Orthopedics Exam

The AOBOS Orthopedic Surgery Certifying Examination is the certifying board exam for osteopathic orthopedic surgeons. Part I (Written) is a 250-question multiple-choice exam delivered in three 120-minute sections via remote proctoring; the 2026 Part I exam is scheduled for April 29, 2026. Following passage, candidates complete Part II Clinical examination. Content spans trauma, sports medicine, spine, hand/foot, pediatric orthopedics, tumors and infections, joint reconstruction, and osteopathic principles in musculoskeletal care.

Questions

250 scored questions

Time Limit

Three 120-minute sections (~6 hours total) via remote proctoring

Passing Score

AOA scaled score of 500 (200-800 scale)

Exam Fee

$1,000 (AOBOS 2026); ~$500 AOAO reimbursement for member residents (American Osteopathic Board of Orthopedic Surgery (AOBOS))

AOBOS Orthopedics Exam Content Outline

~25%

Trauma and Fractures

Open fracture management (Gustilo-Anderson types, antibiotics within 1 hour), Salter-Harris classification, Garden/AO classifications, Schatzker tibial plateau, Letournel-Judet acetabular, Weber ankle, posterior knee dislocation/popliteal artery, hip fractures within 24-48 hours, compartment syndrome (delta <30), pelvic ring instability.

~20%

Sports Medicine

ACL tear (Lachman, MRI, reconstruction), meniscus repair vs resection, rotator cuff tendinopathy and tears (Hawkins, Neer, empty can), shoulder instability (Bankart, Latarjet for bone loss), SLAP (O'Brien), Achilles rupture (Thompson), stress fractures, female athlete triad/RED-S.

~15%

Spine

Cauda equina (saddle anesthesia, urinary retention, emergent MRI/decompression), cervical myelopathy (Hoffman, Babinski, MRI, decompression), lumbar stenosis with neurogenic claudication, C6-C7 disc herniation, Denis three-column model, degenerative L4-L5 spondylolisthesis.

~15%

Hand and Foot

Carpal/cubital tunnel, scaphoid (thumb spica + MRI), distal radius (volar plate), trigger finger (steroid + A1 release), de Quervain (Finkelstein), Lisfranc injury, Jones fracture (high nonunion), plantar fasciitis, Morton neuroma, Charcot foot, Hawkins talar fracture classification.

~10%

Pediatric Orthopedics

DDH (Ortolani-Barlow, Pavlik harness), SCFE (obese adolescent, in situ pinning), LCPD (4-8 years), Osgood-Schlatter (apophysitis), supracondylar humerus (Gartland III pinning), Kocher criteria for septic arthritis, toddler fracture, club foot, scoliosis.

~5%

Tumors and Infections

Multiple myeloma (most common adult primary bone tumor), osteosarcoma (knee in adolescents, sunburst/Codman), Ewing sarcoma, giant cell tumor (distal femur), osteoid osteoma (NSAID-relieved night pain), sickle-cell salmonella osteomyelitis, vertebral osteomyelitis (6 weeks IV).

~5%

Joint Reconstruction

Femoral neck fracture in elderly (THA vs hemi), intertrochanteric (sliding hip screw vs cephalomedullary nail), hip/knee OA conservative care to TKA/THA, AVN of femoral head (multiple etiologies), two-stage revision for chronic periprosthetic joint infection.

~5%

OMM in Musculoskeletal Care

Counterstrain, muscle energy, myofascial release tailored to acute vs chronic dysfunction, HVLA candidacy and contraindications (recent surgery, fracture, vascular insufficiency), application to cervical/lumbar somatic dysfunction in stable patients.

How to Pass the AOBOS Orthopedics Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: AOA scaled score of 500 (200-800 scale)
  • Exam length: 250 questions
  • Time limit: Three 120-minute sections (~6 hours total) via remote proctoring
  • Exam fee: $1,000 (AOBOS 2026); ~$500 AOAO reimbursement for member residents

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AOBOS Orthopedics Study Tips from Top Performers

1Drill highest-weight categories first. Trauma/fractures (~25%) demands mastery of classifications: Gustilo-Anderson (open), Salter-Harris (pediatric physeal), Garden (femoral neck), Schatzker (tibial plateau), Weber (ankle), Letournel-Judet (acetabular), and Hawkins (talar neck).
2Master sports medicine high-yield: Lachman/anterior drawer/pivot shift for ACL, Hawkins/Neer/empty can for rotator cuff impingement, McMurray for meniscus, Thompson for Achilles, O'Brien for SLAP, posterior drawer/posterior sag for PCL.
3Memorize spine red flags: cauda equina (saddle anesthesia, urinary retention, bilateral weakness → emergent MRI), cervical myelopathy (Hoffman, Babinski, gait disturbance), unstable burst fractures (Denis 2-column injury). Know neurogenic vs vascular claudication patterns.
4Pediatric orthopedic essentials: DDH screening (Ortolani-Barlow, US <6mo), SCFE in obese adolescent (in situ pinning), LCPD (4-8y), supracondylar humerus (Gartland classification, percutaneous pinning), Kocher criteria (>=3 = septic hip), Osgood-Schlatter.
5Build OMM-in-orthopedics fluency: appropriate technique selection for postoperative patients (favor counterstrain, muscle energy, myofascial; avoid aggressive HVLA near recent fixation); red flags for cervical OMT (fracture, vascular compromise, progressive neurologic deficit).

Frequently Asked Questions

When is the AOBOS Part I written exam in 2026?

The AOBOS Part I (Written) examination is scheduled for Wednesday, April 29, 2026, delivered via remote proctoring. The application deadline is February 28, 2026. Detailed dates and deadlines are published on the AOBOS Important Dates page each year.

How is the AOBOS Part I exam structured?

The Part I exam contains approximately 250 multiple-choice questions delivered in three 120-minute sections via remote proctoring, allowing the candidate to test from a private, secure location. Optional breaks are permitted between sections. Scores are reported on the AOA 200-800 scaled scale with 500 representing the minimum passing standard.

What is the fee for the AOBOS Part I exam?

The 2026 AOBOS Part I exam fee is $1,000, payable with the application by February 28, 2026. AOAO offers a one-time $500 reimbursement to AOAO resident members (4th or 5th year) who register and pay for the AOBOS Part I written exam.

Who is eligible to take the AOBOS Part I exam?

Candidates must be DOs in their 4th or 5th year of an AOA-approved or ACGME-accredited orthopedic surgery residency, or have completed such a residency. An unrestricted US medical license and program director attestation of clinical competence are required.

What is the AOBOS Part II Clinical examination?

After passing Part I, candidates progress to Part II (Clinical) examination, a structured live oral examination assessing operative judgment, complication management, and clinical reasoning across orthopedic subspecialties. Detailed format and prerequisites are in the AOBOS Clinical Handbook.

What topics are heavily weighted on the AOBOS Part I exam?

Trauma and fractures (~25%) and sports medicine (~20%) dominate, followed by spine (~15%), hand and foot (~15%), pediatric orthopedics (~10%), and approximately 5% each for tumors/infections, joint reconstruction, and OMM/musculoskeletal osteopathic principles. Open fracture management, ACL/rotator cuff, spinal stenosis/cauda equina, Salter-Harris, and Kocher criteria are particularly high-yield.

Does the AOBOS exam include osteopathic principles?

Yes. As an AOA board, AOBOS expects candidates to integrate osteopathic principles into musculoskeletal practice. Items address application of OMT (counterstrain, muscle energy, myofascial release, HVLA candidacy) for cervical/lumbar somatic dysfunction, including precautions in postoperative orthopedic patients and red-flag screening.

How long should I study for AOBOS Part I?

Most candidates report 400-600 hours of dedicated study over 6-12 months, often integrated throughout PGY-4 and PGY-5 residency. A typical plan emphasizes daily question-bank drilling, Miller's Review or Orthobullets, AAOS Comprehensive Review course materials, and case-based review focusing on classifications, anatomy, and operative principles.