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100+ Free AOBOG OB-GYN Practice Questions

Pass your AOBOG Obstetrics & Gynecology Certifying Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Which is the most appropriate management of severe abnormal uterine bleeding in a 16-year-old?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AOBOG OB-GYN Exam

Once/year

Primary Written Exam

AOBOG (April/May)

Scaled 500

Minimum Passing Score

AOA 200-800 scale

4 years

Residency Required

AOA/ACGME

Remote proctored

Exam Delivery

AOBOG

~40% Obstetrics

Largest Content Category

AOBOG blueprint

Two parts

Written + Oral Exam

AOBOG Component 2 + Oral

The AOBOG OB-GYN boards are the AOA pathway to obstetrics and gynecology certification for DOs, paralleling ABOG. The Primary Written Exam is delivered once per year via remote proctoring (typically April/May), scored on the AOA 200-800 scale with 500 as the minimum passing standard. Eligibility requires graduation from (or 3rd-4th year status in) an AOA-approved or ACGME-accredited OB-GYN residency. Successful candidates progress to a structured oral exam.

Sample AOBOG OB-GYN Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AOBOG OB-GYN exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old G1P0 at 36 weeks gestation has BP 162/108 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, headache, and epigastric pain. Platelets are 80,000. The most appropriate next step is:
A.Outpatient observation with follow-up in 1 week
B.Admission for magnesium sulfate, antihypertensive therapy, and delivery
C.Continue pregnancy without intervention
D.Repeat labs in 24 hours
Explanation: Severe preeclampsia with HELLP features (platelets <100k, abdominal pain, headache) requires admission, IV magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, antihypertensive therapy (labetalol/hydralazine/nifedipine), and delivery at >=34 weeks regardless of fetal lung maturity.
2Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A.Uterine atony
B.Retained placenta
C.Uterine inversion
D.Coagulopathy
Explanation: Uterine atony causes ~70-80% of postpartum hemorrhage. The 4 T's mnemonic: Tone (atony), Tissue (retained placenta), Trauma (lacerations), Thrombin (coagulopathy). Initial management is bimanual massage, uterotonics (oxytocin, methylergonovine, carboprost, misoprostol), and IV resuscitation.
3A 25-year-old woman with primary dysmenorrhea unresponsive to NSAIDs requests treatment. Which is the most appropriate next step?
A.Hysterectomy
B.Combined oral contraceptive pill
C.Levothyroxine
D.Long-term opioids
Explanation: Combined oral contraceptives are second-line for primary dysmenorrhea after NSAIDs. They suppress ovulation and reduce prostaglandin production, decreasing menstrual pain. Continuous or extended-cycle regimens further reduce symptoms.
4A G2P1 woman at 32 weeks gestation has painless vaginal bleeding. Which is the most appropriate next step?
A.Digital cervical exam
B.Transabdominal/transvaginal ultrasound to assess for placenta previa
C.Immediate vaginal delivery
D.Discharge with reassurance
Explanation: Painless 3rd-trimester bleeding is classic for placenta previa. A digital cervical exam is contraindicated until previa is ruled out. Transvaginal ultrasound is safe and accurate. Cesarean delivery is planned at 36-37+6 weeks for confirmed previa.
5Which is the most appropriate first-line contraception for a 23-year-old nulliparous woman seeking long-acting reversible contraception?
A.Combined oral contraceptive pill
B.Etonogestrel implant or hormonal/copper IUD (LARC)
C.Tubal ligation
D.Diaphragm
Explanation: LARC methods (implants, hormonal/copper IUDs) are most effective with failure rates <1% per year and are first-line per ACOG, including for nulliparous adolescents. They are independent of user compliance and have long durations of action (3-12 years).
6A 30-year-old G2P1 woman is at 30 weeks gestation. Glucose challenge test is 165 mg/dL. The next step is:
A.No further testing
B.3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test
C.Immediate insulin therapy
D.HbA1c testing
Explanation: An abnormal 1-hour 50-g GCT (>=135-140 mg/dL) is followed by a 3-hour 100-g OGTT to confirm gestational diabetes (>=2 abnormal values diagnostic). Dietary therapy and glucose monitoring are first-line; insulin or metformin for failure.
7Which is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a reproductive-age woman?
A.Polycystic ovary syndrome
B.Pregnancy
C.Premature ovarian insufficiency
D.Hypothalamic amenorrhea
Explanation: Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea and must be excluded first. After exclusion, evaluation includes prolactin, TSH, and FSH/LH for PCOS, hypothalamic, or ovarian causes. PCOS is the most common non-pregnancy cause.
8Which is the most appropriate initial management for an unstable patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
A.Methotrexate
B.Emergent surgical management (laparoscopic salpingectomy or salpingostomy)
C.Observation with repeat hCG
D.Misoprostol
Explanation: Hemodynamically unstable ectopic pregnancy requires emergent surgical intervention via salpingectomy or salpingostomy. Methotrexate is reserved for stable patients with low hCG (<5,000) and no fetal cardiac activity.
9Which finding is most consistent with PCOS by Rotterdam criteria?
A.Single criterion satisfies diagnosis
B.2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on US
C.Polycystic ovaries alone
D.Elevated TSH alone
Explanation: Rotterdam criteria require 2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne, elevated total testosterone), and polycystic ovaries on US (>=12 follicles 2-9 mm or volume >10 mL). Other causes (thyroid, prolactin, CAH) must be excluded.
10A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding. The most appropriate initial evaluation is:
A.Reassurance
B.Endometrial biopsy or transvaginal ultrasound with endometrial thickness measurement (>4 mm suggests further evaluation)
C.Routine Pap test only
D.Bone densitometry
Explanation: Postmenopausal bleeding requires evaluation for endometrial cancer. Transvaginal US with endometrial thickness >4 mm or endometrial biopsy assesses for malignancy. ~10% of postmenopausal bleeding is endometrial cancer.

About the AOBOG OB-GYN Exam

The AOBOG Obstetrics & Gynecology Certifying Examination is the certifying board exam for osteopathic OB-GYNs. The Primary Written Exam (Component 2) is offered once per year via remote proctoring, generally every April/May. The application period opens five months prior to the exam, and applications are due ~15 days prior to the exam. After passing the written exam, candidates progress to an oral examination. Content spans obstetrics, gynecology, gynecologic oncology, reproductive endocrinology, and osteopathic principles.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

Multi-section computer-based exam via remote proctoring (typically several hours; once-annually, generally April/May)

Passing Score

AOA scaled score of 500 (200-800 scale)

Exam Fee

Set annually by AOBOG; confirm current amount with AOBOG (American Osteopathic Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology (AOBOG))

AOBOG OB-GYN Exam Content Outline

~40%

Obstetrics

Prenatal care and aneuploidy screening (cfDNA, quad screen), gestational diabetes (1-hour GCT >=135-140, 3-hour OGTT), HDP severity criteria, magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, preterm labor (tocolysis, betamethasone, magnesium neuroprotection), PPROM antibiotic protocol, PROM induction (TERMPROM), GBS prophylaxis (penicillin/cefazolin/clindamycin/vancomycin), shoulder dystocia (HELPERR), postpartum hemorrhage (4 Ts), VBAC counseling, placenta previa/abruption/accreta.

~35%

Gynecology

AUB (medical first: LNG-IUD, COCs, tranexamic acid), fibroids (myomectomy if fertility desired), endometriosis, contraception (LARC first-line per ACOG), STI/PID treatment, bacterial vaginosis (Amsel criteria, metronidazole), Bartholin abscess (I&D + Word catheter), urinary incontinence (PT first, anticholinergics for urge), pelvic organ prolapse (pessary), menopause (HT for symptomatic <60 or <10 yrs postmenopausal).

~10%

Gynecologic Oncology

ASCCP 2019 risk-based cervical screening, HSIL colposcopy/biopsy, endometrial cancer (postmenopausal bleeding workup), endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia (hysterectomy preferred), ovarian cancer (high-grade serous most common), BRCA risk-reducing BSO at 35-40, vulvar cancer in older women, complete hydatidiform mole (snowstorm US, suction D&C, hCG surveillance).

~10%

Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility

PCOS Rotterdam criteria (2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries), letrozole first-line ovulation induction, primary amenorrhea workup (karyotype + FSH/LH), AMH/AFC for ovarian reserve, recurrent pregnancy loss workup (karyotype, APS, TSH, uterine cavity), OHSS prevention/management, ectopic pregnancy (methotrexate eligibility criteria).

~5%

OMM in OB-GYN

Pelvic diaphragm release and sacral techniques for laboring patients, muscle energy and counterstrain for prepartum/postpartum back pain, left lateral decubitus positioning in 3rd trimester (IVC compression avoidance), and adjunctive OMM for postpartum recovery and gynecologic care.

How to Pass the AOBOG OB-GYN Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: AOA scaled score of 500 (200-800 scale)
  • Exam length: 200 questions
  • Time limit: Multi-section computer-based exam via remote proctoring (typically several hours; once-annually, generally April/May)
  • Exam fee: Set annually by AOBOG; confirm current amount with AOBOG

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AOBOG OB-GYN Study Tips from Top Performers

1Drill the largest category first — obstetrics (~40%). Master severe preeclampsia criteria (BP >=160/110, severe headache, RUQ pain, plt <100k, doubled LFTs), magnesium sulfate dosing and toxicity (Ca gluconate), HELLP syndrome, eclampsia (Mg + delivery), and HDP delivery timing (37+0 gestational HTN, 34+0 severe preeclampsia).
2Internalize gestational diabetes pathway: 1-hour 50-g GCT >=135-140 → 3-hour 100-g OGTT (>=2 abnormal values diagnostic). Diet first, then metformin/insulin. Delivery 39+0-39+6 (well-controlled diet), 37+0-39+6 (medication or poor control).
3Master labor complications: PPH 4 Ts (Tone, Tissue, Trauma, Thrombin) → uterotonics (oxytocin → methylergonovine → carboprost → misoprostol → TXA → balloon → embolization → hysterectomy). Shoulder dystocia HELPERR. PPROM 24-34 weeks: betamethasone, ampicillin + erythromycin x 7 days, magnesium <32 weeks.
4Memorize gynecology high-yield: ASCCP 2019 risk-based cervical screening (25+ co-testing or primary HPV; HPV+/Cyto- → genotyping or 1-year repeat), endometrial hyperplasia with atypia (hysterectomy preferred), PCOS Rotterdam (2 of 3), letrozole first-line for ovulation induction, LNG-IUD first-line for AUB.
5Build OMM-in-OB-GYN fluency: 3rd-trimester positioning (left lateral after 20 weeks for IVC), gentle techniques in pregnancy (muscle energy, counterstrain, myofascial), pelvic diaphragm release and sacral techniques for labor and pelvic pain; document patient-centered safety considerations.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who is eligible for the AOBOG Obstetrics & Gynecology certifying exam?

Candidates must be DOs who have graduated from, or are in their 3rd or 4th year of, an AOA-approved or ACGME-accredited Obstetrics and Gynecology residency. An unrestricted US medical license, program director attestation of clinical competence, and compliance with AOBOG application timelines are required.

How is the AOBOG OB-GYN written exam structured?

The Primary Written Exam (Component 2) is offered once per year via remote proctoring, generally every April/May. The application period opens five months prior to the exam, and applications are due ~15 days prior to the exam. The exam is multi-section, computer-based, with scoring on the AOA 200-800 scaled scale.

How is the AOBOG OB-GYN exam scored?

The AOA reports scores on a 200 to 800 scaled scale, with a scaled score of 500 representing the minimum passing standard as established by AOA Certifying Boards. Pass/fail decisions and detailed performance feedback are provided by AOBOG after each administration.

What is the AOBOG oral examination?

After passing the Primary Written Exam, candidates progress to the structured oral examination. The oral exam tests clinical reasoning, operative judgment, and complication management through case-based scenarios with multiple examiners. Specific format, dates, and fees are published on the AOBOG Important Dates page.

What topics are most heavily weighted on the AOBOG exam?

Obstetrics is the largest category (~40%), covering prenatal care, hypertensive disorders, gestational diabetes, labor and delivery, postpartum hemorrhage, and infection in pregnancy. Gynecology (~35%) covers menstrual disorders, fibroids, contraception, infections, incontinence, and menopause. Gynecologic oncology (~10%), REI (~10%), and OMM in OB-GYN (~5%) round out the blueprint.

Does the AOBOG exam test osteopathic principles?

Yes. As an AOA board, AOBOG expects candidates to integrate osteopathic principles into OB-GYN care. Items address application of OMT in pregnancy (pelvic diaphragm release, sacral counterstrain, muscle energy for back pain, lymphatic techniques), with attention to positioning (left lateral after 20 weeks) and appropriate technique selection.

How long should I study for the AOBOG written boards?

Most candidates report 400-600 hours of dedicated study over 6-12 months. Most candidates layer ACOG Practice Bulletins and Committee Opinions, SMFM guidelines, ASCCP cervical cancer screening updates, NCCN gyn oncology guidelines, and AOBOG-recommended resources. Daily question-bank drilling, structured review courses, and case-based learning are essential.

What happens if I do not pass the AOBOG written exam?

Candidates who do not pass may reapply for the next administration per AOBOG policy. Detailed performance feedback by content area helps target gaps. AOBOG publishes time-limit requirements for completing the certification process after residency; candidates should consult the current AOBOG handbook for retake policies and timing requirements.