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100+ Free ABPMR SCI Medicine Practice Questions

Pass your ABPMR Spinal Cord Injury Medicine Subspecialty Certification Examination exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 28-year-old with a C6 AIS A injury has no voluntary anal contraction, no deep anal pressure, and no sensation at S4-5. Which ASIA Impairment Scale grade is correct?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPMR SCI Medicine Exam

~200

Total MCQ Items

ABPMR SCI Medicine Subspecialty Certification Examination

~8 hr

Total Exam Time

1-day computer-based test including breaks

~T6

AD Risk Threshold

Lesions at or above T6 are at risk for autonomic dysreflexia

$2,000

2026 Initial Cert Fee

ABPMR subspecialty certification

1 yr

Required Fellowship

ACGME SCI Medicine fellowship

LA-PMR

Continuing Cert

Longitudinal Assessment replaces 10-year secure exam

The ABPMR SCI Medicine exam is a 1-day computer-based test from the American Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation comprising ~200 single-best-answer MCQs over ~8 hours. The 2026 content outline emphasizes ISNCSCI/ASIA and incomplete syndromes (~15%), neurogenic bladder/bowel (~15%), autonomic dysreflexia (~10%), pressure injuries (~10%), acute management (~8%), spasticity (~7%), cardiovascular/OH (~6%), pulmonary (~6%), pain (~6%), HO (~5%), fertility (~4%), DVT/VTE (~4%), and non-traumatic/other SCI (~4%). Initial certification fee is ~$2,000; 1-year ACGME fellowship required after ABPMR primary.

Sample ABPMR SCI Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPMR SCI Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old with a C6 AIS A injury has no voluntary anal contraction, no deep anal pressure, and no sensation at S4-5. Which ASIA Impairment Scale grade is correct?
A.AIS D
B.AIS B
C.AIS C
D.AIS A
Explanation: AIS A = complete, defined as NO sensory or motor function preserved in sacral segments S4-5 (no DAP, no VAC, no S4-5 LT/PP). Any sacral sparing moves the grade to B or higher. This patient has a complete injury.
2Which key muscle corresponds to the C7 motor level on the ISNCSCI examination?
A.Elbow extensors (triceps)
B.Elbow flexors (biceps)
C.Wrist extensors
D.Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus to the middle finger)
Explanation: ISNCSCI key muscles: C5 elbow flexors, C6 wrist extensors, C7 elbow extensors (triceps), C8 finger flexors, T1 small finger abductors. Grade 3/5 or better (with next higher level 5/5) defines the motor level.
3A 72-year-old man falls forward striking his chin. He develops weakness worse in the upper extremities than the lower extremities and variable sensory loss. Which incomplete syndrome is most likely?
A.Anterior cord syndrome
B.Central cord syndrome
C.Brown-Séquard syndrome
D.Posterior cord syndrome
Explanation: Central cord syndrome is the most common incomplete SCI, classically in elderly with cervical spondylosis after hyperextension injury. Weakness is greater in upper than lower extremities due to somatotopic arrangement of the corticospinal tract, with variable sensory loss and bladder dysfunction.
4A patient after a stab wound has ipsilateral loss of motor function and proprioception, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the lesion. Which syndrome is this?
A.Central cord syndrome
B.Anterior cord syndrome
C.Brown-Séquard syndrome
D.Conus medullaris syndrome
Explanation: Brown-Séquard syndrome (cord hemisection) produces ipsilateral corticospinal tract deficit (motor) and dorsal column deficit (proprioception/vibration), with contralateral spinothalamic tract deficit (pain/temperature) a few levels below the lesion. It carries the BEST prognosis among incomplete syndromes.
5A patient with acute cervical SCI has preserved proprioception and vibration but absent motor, pain, and temperature sensation below the level. Which syndrome is this and what is its prognosis?
A.Posterior cord syndrome — good prognosis
B.Central cord syndrome — excellent prognosis
C.Brown-Séquard syndrome — best prognosis
D.Anterior cord syndrome — worst prognosis for motor recovery
Explanation: Anterior cord syndrome (often anterior spinal artery infarction) spares the posterior columns (proprioception/vibration) but damages corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts. It has the WORST prognosis among incomplete syndromes — only about 10-20% achieve meaningful motor recovery.
6A patient with a lumbar burst fracture has saddle anesthesia, flaccid lower extremity weakness, and urinary retention with overflow. Which condition requires urgent surgical decompression?
A.Central cord syndrome
B.Cauda equina syndrome
C.Spinal shock
D.Autonomic dysreflexia
Explanation: Cauda equina syndrome (compression of L2-S4 nerve roots below conus) presents with saddle anesthesia, flaccid (LMN) lower extremity weakness, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. It is a SURGICAL EMERGENCY — decompression within 24-48 hours preserves function.
7Which ASIA Impairment Scale grade is defined by motor incomplete injury with at least half of key muscles below the neurologic level grading 3/5 or better?
A.AIS B
B.AIS C
C.AIS D
D.AIS E
Explanation: AIS D = motor incomplete with at LEAST half of the key muscles below the single neurologic level graded ≥3/5 (antigravity). AIS C = motor incomplete with MORE than half graded <3/5. AIS B = sensory-only incomplete with sacral sparing. AIS E = normal exam in someone with prior deficit.
8A patient 6 hours after traumatic C6 SCI has flaccid paralysis, areflexia, and bladder atony. Which phenomenon explains these findings and which reflex typically returns first?
A.Neurogenic shock — DTRs return first
B.Spinal shock — bulbocavernosus reflex returns first (hours to days)
C.Autonomic dysreflexia — patellar reflex returns first
D.Conus medullaris injury — no reflexes will return
Explanation: Spinal shock is the transient loss of reflex activity below the level of injury (flaccid paralysis, areflexia, bladder atony) after acute SCI. The bulbocavernosus reflex (S2-4) typically returns FIRST, within hours to days, marking the end of spinal shock.
9A patient with acute C5 SCI has BP 82/50, HR 48, and warm extremities. Which type of shock is present and what is first-line pharmacologic therapy?
A.Neurogenic shock — atropine for bradycardia and norepinephrine for MAP support
B.Hypovolemic shock — aggressive IV crystalloid
C.Cardiogenic shock — dobutamine
D.Septic shock — broad-spectrum antibiotics
Explanation: Neurogenic shock results from sympathectomy in cervical/high-thoracic (above T6) SCI: loss of sympathetic vascular tone produces hypotension with UNOPPOSED vagal tone causing bradycardia (distinguishes it from hypovolemic/septic shock). Atropine for bradycardia, norepinephrine first-line pressor, MAP goal ≥85-90.
10What is the currently recommended MAP goal and duration in the acute management of traumatic SCI?
A.MAP ≥70 mmHg for 72 hours
B.MAP ≥65 mmHg for 24 hours
C.MAP ≥100 mmHg for 14 days
D.MAP ≥85-90 mmHg for 5-7 days
Explanation: Consensus guidelines recommend maintaining MAP ≥85-90 mmHg for 5-7 days after acute traumatic SCI to optimize spinal cord perfusion and potentially improve neurologic recovery. This is achieved with fluids and vasopressors as needed.

About the ABPMR SCI Medicine Exam

The ABPMR Spinal Cord Injury Medicine Subspecialty Certification Examination validates expert-level knowledge in the diagnosis and management of traumatic and non-traumatic spinal cord injury, including ISNCSCI/ASIA examination, incomplete syndromes (central cord, anterior cord, Brown-Séquard, cauda equina, conus medullaris), acute SCI management (MAP goals, timing of decompression, current stance against routine methylprednisolone), autonomic dysreflexia, neurogenic bladder and bowel, spasticity, heterotopic ossification, DVT prophylaxis, pressure injuries, pulmonary care by level of injury, pain, sexuality/fertility, and community reintegration. Requires ABPMR primary certification plus a 1-year ACGME-accredited SCI Medicine fellowship.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day CBT (~8 hours including breaks)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPMR

Exam Fee

~$2,000 initial certification fee (ABPMR 2026 subspecialty) (American Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation (ABPMR) / Pearson VUE)

ABPMR SCI Medicine Exam Content Outline

~15%

ISNCSCI / ASIA Examination

Neurologic level, AIS A-E (A complete, B sensory incomplete with sacral sparing, C <3/5 below, D ≥3/5 below, E normal), key sensory points C2-S5, key muscles (C5 elbow flex, C6 wrist ext, C7 elbow ext, C8 finger flex, T1 small-finger abd, L2 hip flex, L3 knee ext, L4 ankle DF, L5 toe ext, S1 ankle PF), sacral sparing (DAP, VAC, S4-5 LT/PP), zone of partial preservation.

~15%

Neurogenic Bladder & Bowel

Suprasacral UMN (reflexic, DSD, hydronephrosis risk), infrasacral LMN (areflexic, overflow), urodynamics q1-2 yr, CIC <500 mL, oxybutynin/trospium, mirabegron, botulinum toxin detrusor 200U, augmentation, Mitrofanoff; UMN bowel q1-2 d digital stim + suppository; LMN bowel daily manual evacuation; asymptomatic bacteriuria is NOT treated.

~10%

Autonomic Dysreflexia

Lesions ≥T6, noxious stimulus below (MCC bladder distension, then bowel impaction, pressure injury, ingrown toenail, tight clothes), SBP ≥20 mmHg above baseline, pounding headache, flushing above, piloerection below, reflex bradycardia; emergency: sit up, loosen, catheterize, disimpact, nifedipine bite-chew; long-term prazosin.

~10%

Pressure Injuries & Skin

NPIAP staging 1 (non-blanching erythema), 2 (partial thickness), 3 (full thickness), 4 (muscle/bone), unstageable, DTI (purple/maroon); Braden ≤18 at risk; sacrum, ischium, trochanter, heel; q15-30 min pressure relief; ROHO/Jay cushions; wound care by stage; myocutaneous flap for Stage 3/4; osteomyelitis workup.

~8%

Acute SCI Management

Spinal immobilization, 2023 AANS/CNS AGAINST routine methylprednisolone, MAP ≥85-90 mmHg × 5-7 days, early decompression <24 hr, neurogenic shock (sympathectomy — hypotension + bradycardia; atropine, norepinephrine), spinal shock (flaccid areflexia — BCR returns first).

~7%

Spasticity

Modified Ashworth 0-4 (1+), Tardieu velocity-dependent, oral baclofen, tizanidine (alpha-2), dantrolene (muscle — LFT monitoring), diazepam, intrathecal baclofen pump (screening trial, overdose/withdrawal); botulinum toxin for focal (gastrocnemius equinovarus, adductors scissoring); phenol/alcohol neurolysis.

~6%

Pulmonary Management

C1-C3 ventilator-dependent, C4-C5 can wean, quad/assisted cough, mechanical insufflation-exsufflation, phrenic/diaphragmatic pacing, sleep disordered breathing (40-50% prevalence — PSG), BiPAP, secretion management.

~6%

Pain

ISCIP classification — nociceptive musculoskeletal (shoulder in manual wheelchair users), nociceptive visceral, neuropathic at-level (transitional), neuropathic below-level (dysesthesia, allodynia); gabapentin, pregabalin, TCA, lamotrigine, duloxetine; CRPS.

~6%

Cardiovascular & Orthostatic Hypotension

Orthostatic hypotension (fludrocortisone, midodrine, abdominal binder, compression stockings, slow position changes), acute bradyarrhythmias in tetraplegia (atropine), metabolic syndrome, reduced HR reserve, poikilothermia.

~5%

Heterotopic Ossification

Hip most common in SCI/TBI, onset 1-4 months post-injury, warmth/swelling/loss of ROM/low-grade fever, elevated ALP, triple-phase bone scan earliest, plain XR flocculent later; NSAID prophylaxis (indomethacin), etidronate (historical), radiation post-surgery, surgical excision after maturity.

~4%

Fertility & Sexuality

Reflex erection (intact S2-4), psychogenic erection (T11-L2), PDE5 inhibitors first-line, vacuum devices, intracavernosal alprostadil, penile vibratory stimulation/electroejaculation for male fertility (low motility), autonomic dysreflexia in labor/delivery, female fertility preserved after 6-12 mo amenorrhea.

~4%

DVT / VTE Prophylaxis

Highest thromboembolism risk in acute SCI (peak 2-4 weeks); LMWH within 72 hours of hemostasis; continue 8-12 weeks or until independent mobility; IVC filter only when anticoagulation contraindicated.

~4%

Non-traumatic SCI & Other

Transverse myelitis, NMO (aquaporin-4, MOG), neoplastic cord compression, anterior spinal artery syndrome, radiation myelopathy, post-traumatic syringomyelia (delayed progressive loss — MRI), pediatric SCIWORA, scoliosis, hip subluxation.

How to Pass the ABPMR SCI Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPMR
  • Exam length: 200 questions
  • Time limit: 1-day CBT (~8 hours including breaks)
  • Exam fee: ~$2,000 initial certification fee (ABPMR 2026 subspecialty)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPMR SCI Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1ISNCSCI AIS scoring pearls: A = complete (no sacral sparing); B = sensory incomplete with sacral sparing (DAP, S4-5 LT/PP, or VAC) but NO motor function more than 3 levels below motor level; C = motor incomplete with MORE THAN HALF of key muscles below neurologic level grading <3/5; D = motor incomplete with AT LEAST HALF grading ≥3/5; E = normal in a patient with prior deficit.
2Incomplete syndrome pattern recognition: CENTRAL CORD (MCC incomplete, elderly hyperextension, upper extremity > lower weakness, good prognosis); ANTERIOR CORD (preserved posterior columns only, worst motor recovery); BROWN-SÉQUARD (ipsilateral motor + proprioception, contralateral pain/temperature, best prognosis); CAUDA EQUINA (LMN, saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder — surgical emergency); CONUS MEDULLARIS (mixed UMN/LMN).
3Autonomic dysreflexia emergency algorithm: SBP ≥20 mmHg above baseline in patient with lesion at or above T6 + noxious stimulus below. Immediate steps: (1) SIT UP — gravity-assisted orthostatic drop; (2) loosen tight clothing; (3) check bladder — catheterize or unkink catheter, irrigate with lidocaine if needed; (4) check bowel — disimpact with lidocaine gel; (5) inspect skin for ingrown toenails, pressure injuries. If SBP persists ≥150: nifedipine 10 mg bite-and-chew, nitrates (avoid if PDE5 within 24 hr), captopril.
4Acute SCI management 2026 pearls: 2023 AANS/CNS guidelines RECOMMEND AGAINST routine methylprednisolone in acute SCI (NASCIS protocol withdrawn due to harm > benefit). Standard of care: MAP ≥85-90 mmHg × 5-7 days with vasopressors as needed, early surgical decompression <24 hours improves outcomes, VTE prophylaxis with LMWH within 72 hours of hemostasis.
5Neurogenic bladder essentials: suprasacral (UMN) → reflexic detrusor + detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia + hydronephrosis risk — treat with CIC + anticholinergic (oxybutynin/trospium) or mirabegron; consider onabotulinumtoxinA 200U detrusor for refractory. Infrasacral (LMN, including cauda equina) → areflexic with overflow — CIC without anticholinergic. Urodynamics every 1-2 years. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in neurogenic bladder should NOT be treated — only treat symptomatic UTI.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPMR Spinal Cord Injury Medicine subspecialty certification?

The ABPMR SCI Medicine subspecialty certification is awarded by the American Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation to physiatrists who demonstrate expert-level knowledge in the comprehensive rehabilitation care of traumatic and non-traumatic spinal cord injury. Scope includes ISNCSCI/ASIA classification, acute SCI management, autonomic dysreflexia, neurogenic bladder and bowel, spasticity, heterotopic ossification, pressure injuries, pulmonary management by level, pain, fertility/sexuality, wheelchair/seating, and community reintegration. The certification qualifies physiatrists for independent SCI practice at Model SCI Systems and rehabilitation centers.

Who is eligible to take the ABPMR SCI Medicine exam?

Candidates must hold ABPMR primary certification in good standing and have completed 1 year of full-time training in an ACGME-accredited Spinal Cord Injury Medicine fellowship. A valid unrestricted medical license is required. Fellowship includes training in inpatient and outpatient SCI, acute rehabilitation, ventilator weaning, neurogenic bladder/bowel, urodynamics interpretation, spasticity management (including intrathecal baclofen and botulinum toxin), wheelchair prescription, and research.

What is the format of the ABPMR SCI Medicine exam?

The exam is a 1-day computer-based examination administered at Pearson VUE test centers, comprising approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over roughly 8 hours (including breaks). Question stems frequently include ISNCSCI worksheets, urodynamic tracings, clinical images (pressure injuries, heterotopic ossification XR/bone scan), MRI cord imaging, and clinical vignettes. The exam blueprint covers ISNCSCI/ASIA, acute and chronic SCI management, complications, and psychosocial/community reintegration.

How much does the 2026 ABPMR SCI Medicine exam cost?

The 2026 ABPMR SCI Medicine initial subspecialty certification fee is approximately $2,000. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABPMR schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Annual Continuing Certification fees (LA-PMR Longitudinal Assessment) apply after passing. Retakes within the 7-year qualification window require re-registration and full fee payment.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

ABPMR SCI Medicine is typically offered during a testing window in the fall (e.g., October-November). Applications generally open in late winter/early spring with a submission deadline in mid-to-late spring. Candidates schedule specific appointments with Pearson VUE after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABPMR SCI Medicine subspecialty page.

How is the exam scored?

ABPMR uses criterion-referenced scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts (modified Angoff). A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports include subdomain performance to guide future learning. Results are typically released 6-8 weeks after the testing window closes.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield: master ISNCSCI/ASIA examination (including neurologic level, AIS A-E, sacral sparing, and incomplete syndromes — central cord in elderly hyperextension, anterior cord worst prognosis, Brown-Séquard ipsilateral motor + contralateral pain/temp, cauda equina surgical emergency, conus medullaris mixed UMN/LMN). Master autonomic dysreflexia emergency management, neurogenic bladder urodynamics (DSD, CIC, botulinum toxin), NPIAP pressure injury staging and management, heterotopic ossification workup, DVT prophylaxis, and the 2023 AANS/CNS stance against routine methylprednisolone.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 10-14 month plan during and after fellowship. Map to the ABPMR content outline: lead with ISNCSCI/ASIA and incomplete syndromes, then acute SCI (MAP goals, decompression, steroid controversy), autonomic dysreflexia, neurogenic bladder/bowel, pressure injuries, spasticity (oral meds, ITB, BoNT), HO, DVT, pulmonary, pain, fertility. Integrate PVA Clinical Practice Guidelines, Kirshblum/Lin Spinal Cord Medicine textbook, and ASCIP review courses. Complete high-volume MCQs with timed sets. Take 2-3 full-length mock exams. Drill ISNCSCI scoring and urodynamic tracings.