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100+ Free ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Practice Questions

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Per the Gross Motor Function Classification System (GMFCS) for cerebral palsy, which level describes a child who walks at home and short distances in the community but uses a manual wheelchair for longer distances?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Exam

~175

Total MCQ Items

ABPMR PRM Subspecialty Examination

~6 hr

Total Exam Time

1-day computer-based test including breaks

~18-22%

Cerebral Palsy Weight

Largest domain on 2026 ABPMR PRM content outline

$2,100

2026 PRM Fee

ABPMR initial subspecialty certification

PM&R + Peds

Combined Pathway

Consecutive ACGME residencies OR PRM fellowship

Pearson VUE

Test Delivery

Computer-based testing at authorized centers

The ABPMR PRM subspecialty exam is a 1-day computer-based test at Pearson VUE with ~175 single-best-answer MCQs over ~6 hours. The 2026 content emphasizes cerebral palsy & spasticity (~18-22%), neuromuscular DMD/SMA (~12-15%), spina bifida (~10-12%), pediatric TBI (~8-10%), pediatric SCI (~6-8%), pediatric stroke/brachial plexopathy (~6-8%), limb deficiency & pediatric prosthetics (~6-8%), autism/developmental disabilities (~6-8%), school-based therapy & transitions (~6-8%), equipment/orthotics/wheelchair seating (~8-10%), behavioral/psychosocial (~4-6%), and gait & motor analysis (~4-6%). Initial fee is ~$2,100; requires ABPMR primary certification plus PRM fellowship or PM&R + Pediatrics combined residency pathway.

Sample ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPMR Pediatric Rehab exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Per the Gross Motor Function Classification System (GMFCS) for cerebral palsy, which level describes a child who walks at home and short distances in the community but uses a manual wheelchair for longer distances?
A.GMFCS Level I
B.GMFCS Level II
C.GMFCS Level III
D.GMFCS Level IV
Explanation: GMFCS Level III children walk using a hand-held mobility device (walker, crutches) indoors and short community distances but use wheeled mobility for longer distances. Level I walks without limitations; Level II walks without an assistive device but has limitations in community/outdoor settings; Level IV uses powered mobility primarily.
2What is the AACPDM Care Pathway-recommended frequency of hip surveillance radiographs for a child with cerebral palsy at GMFCS Level IV?
A.No routine surveillance needed
B.Every 6 months until skeletal maturity
C.Annually through skeletal maturity
D.Once at age 5 only
Explanation: AACPDM hip surveillance recommends annual AP pelvis radiographs through skeletal maturity for GMFCS levels III-V. GMFCS I generally requires no routine surveillance, and GMFCS II requires annual films until age 7 then less frequently if stable. Surveillance is essential because hip displacement is silent until late and rates exceed 60% in nonambulatory children.
3On hip surveillance radiographs in cerebral palsy, what Reimers migration percentage typically prompts orthopedic referral for likely reconstructive surgery?
A.>10%
B.>20%
C.>30%
D.>40%
Explanation: Reimers migration percentage (MP) measures the proportion of the femoral head lateral to Perkins line. MP <30% is considered normal; 30-40% is at-risk and warrants closer monitoring; >40% prompts orthopedic surgical evaluation; >50% generally requires reconstructive surgery (e.g., varus derotation osteotomy with or without pelvic osteotomy).
4A 6-year-old with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy at GMFCS Level III is being considered for selective dorsal rhizotomy (SDR). Which patient profile is the BEST candidate for SDR?
A.GMFCS V with dystonia and limited cognition
B.Ambulatory GMFCS II-III spastic diplegia, age 4-8, with good selective motor control and trunk strength
C.GMFCS IV with fixed contractures and severe scoliosis
D.Hemiplegic CP with normal contralateral side
Explanation: The classic SDR candidate is an ambulatory child (GMFCS II-III) with spastic diplegia, ages roughly 4-8 years, with good underlying selective motor control, trunk strength, and motivation/participation in postoperative rehabilitation. SDR is contraindicated in dystonic CP and is generally not appropriate for severely affected nonambulatory children with fixed contractures.
5What is the maximum total dose of onabotulinumtoxinA (Botox) typically recommended per treatment session in a child with spastic cerebral palsy?
A.~4 units/kg or 200 units
B.~16 units/kg or 600 units
C.~30 units/kg or 1000 units
D.No weight-based limit
Explanation: Pediatric onabotulinumtoxinA dosing for spasticity typically does not exceed approximately 16 units/kg of body weight or 600 total units per session, whichever is lower. Exceeding these limits increases the risk of distant spread, generalized weakness, and serious adverse events. Single-muscle and per-injection-site limits also apply.
6Which classification system describes manual ability for handling objects in daily activities for children with cerebral palsy?
A.GMFCS
B.MACS
C.CFCS
D.EDACS
Explanation: MACS (Manual Ability Classification System) classifies how children with CP use their hands to handle objects in everyday activities, levels I-V. GMFCS classifies gross motor function; CFCS classifies communication function; EDACS classifies eating and drinking ability.
7Which outcome measure is most commonly used to track gross motor function over time in children with cerebral palsy and is validated for that population?
A.FIM
B.Berg Balance Scale
C.GMFM-66
D.BOT-2
Explanation: The Gross Motor Function Measure-66 (GMFM-66) is a 66-item, criterion-referenced, evaluative outcome measure validated for tracking change in gross motor function in children with CP. The original GMFM-88 includes additional items but the GMFM-66 has stronger psychometric properties.
8A 9-year-old with severe quadriplegic CP and generalized spasticity unresponsive to oral baclofen and serial botulinum toxin is being considered for intrathecal baclofen (ITB). Which step is required before pump implantation?
A.MRI brain to rule out tumor
B.Trial intrathecal baclofen bolus to confirm response
C.Therapeutic INR <2
D.Discontinuation of all oral antispasmodics
Explanation: An intrathecal baclofen screening trial (typically a 50 mcg bolus via lumbar puncture) is performed prior to pump implantation to confirm a meaningful spasticity reduction (e.g., decrease in modified Ashworth) and identify responders. Higher trial doses (75-100 mcg) may be used if needed. A failed trial is a contraindication to pump implantation.
9A child with an intrathecal baclofen pump presents to the ED with severe rebound spasticity, high fever, altered mental status, and rhabdomyolysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Baclofen overdose
B.Acute baclofen withdrawal due to pump/catheter failure
C.Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D.Sepsis
Explanation: Acute intrathecal baclofen withdrawal — typically from catheter dislodgement, kink, fracture, pump malfunction, or empty reservoir — is a medical emergency presenting with rebound severe spasticity, hyperthermia, altered mental status, autonomic instability, and rhabdomyolysis that can progress to multi-organ failure. Treatment is immediate restoration of intrathecal baclofen (re-bolus, pump revision) plus high-dose oral baclofen and benzodiazepines as a bridge.
10Which gait deviation is characterized by excessive knee flexion in stance phase, often associated with weak plantarflexors and progressive hamstring tightness in adolescents with cerebral palsy?
A.True equinus
B.Jump knee
C.Crouch gait
D.Stiff knee gait
Explanation: Crouch gait is defined by excessive knee flexion throughout stance, often with hip flexion and ankle dorsiflexion (calcaneus). It commonly develops in adolescence after over-lengthening of the gastroc-soleus complex and contributes to anterior knee pain and patella alta. Ground-reaction AFOs and hamstring lengthening (or distal femoral extension osteotomy) are management strategies.

About the ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Exam

The ABPMR Pediatric Rehabilitation Medicine (PRM) subspecialty certification examination is a 1-day computer-based test administered at Pearson VUE for physiatrists pursuing PRM certification. The exam contains approximately 175 single-best-answer MCQs spanning cerebral palsy and spasticity management (GMFCS, MACS, hip surveillance, botulinum toxin, ITB, SDR), spina bifida and myelomeningocele (Chiari II, hydrocephalus, neurogenic bladder/bowel, ambulation by level), pediatric TBI (abusive head trauma, school re-entry), pediatric SCI (SCIWORA, autonomic dysreflexia in children), neuromuscular disorders (Duchenne MD with corticosteroids/exon-skipping/elevidys; SMA with nusinersen/onasemnogene abeparvovec/risdiplam), pediatric stroke and brachial plexopathy, congenital limb deficiency and pediatric prosthetics by developmental milestone, autism and developmental disabilities, gait and motor analysis, transitional care, school-based therapies (IEP/504, IDEA Part B/C), pediatric orthotics/wheelchair seating, and behavioral/cognitive/psychosocial care. Eligibility requires ABPMR primary PM&R certification PLUS an ACGME-accredited PRM fellowship OR consecutive ACGME residencies in PM&R AND Pediatrics (combined-pathway).

Questions

175 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day CBT (~6 hours including breaks)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPMR (modified Angoff)

Exam Fee

~$2,100 initial PRM subspecialty certification fee (ABPMR 2026) (American Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation (ABPMR) / Pearson VUE)

ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Exam Content Outline

~16-20%

Cerebral Palsy & Spasticity Management

GMFCS levels I-V (I — walks without limitation; V — transported in manual wheelchair), MACS for upper-limb function, CFCS for communication, topographic classification (spastic diplegia/hemiplegia/quadriplegia, dyskinetic, ataxic, mixed), AACPDM hip surveillance (annual radiographs for GMFCS III-V; Reimers migration percentage >30% concerning, >50% needs reconstruction), oral baclofen/tizanidine/diazepam, botulinum toxin (onabotulinumtoxinA; max ~16 units/kg or 600 units), intrathecal baclofen, selective dorsal rhizotomy (SDR — best for GMFCS II-III spastic diplegia 4-8 yo), single-event multilevel surgery (SEMLS).

~10-12%

Neuromuscular Disorders (DMD, SMA)

Duchenne MD (X-linked Xp21 dystrophin deletion; Gower sign; calf pseudohypertrophy; loss of ambulation ~10-13 yo without steroids; corticosteroids — prednisone 0.75 mg/kg/day or deflazacort 0.9 mg/kg/day delay LOA 2-3 years; exon-skipping eteplirsen/golodirsen/casimersen/viltolarsen; gene therapy delandistrogene moxeparvovec — Elevidys AAV9 for ages 4+; nonsense-mutation ataluren). SMA (SMN1 5q13 homozygous deletion; types I-IV by age and milestones; nusinersen ASO intrathecal; onasemnogene abeparvovec — Zolgensma AAV9 IV for <2 yo; risdiplam oral). NIV/cough assist, scoliosis surveillance, cardiac surveillance.

~8-10%

Spina Bifida & Myelomeningocele

Neurologic level dictates ambulation prognosis: thoracic — wheelchair; L1-L2 household ambulation with KAFO/RGO; L3 community with KAFO; L4-L5 community with AFO; sacral — community ambulator without bracing. Chiari II malformation (almost universal in MMC), hydrocephalus and VP shunt malfunction (lethargy, headache, vomiting; emergent CT/shunt series), neurogenic bladder (CIC, anticholinergics — oxybutynin/tolterodine, mirabegron, augmentation cystoplasty), neurogenic bowel program, latex allergy precautions (10-70% prevalence), tethered cord syndrome (declining function, scoliosis, pain), MOMS trial (in-utero repair before 26 weeks reduces hindbrain herniation and shunting).

~8-10%

Pediatric Traumatic Brain Injury

Pediatric GCS modifications (verbal scoring adjusted for age), abusive head trauma (subdural hematoma + retinal hemorrhages + posterior rib fractures — mandatory reporting in all states), Rancho Pediatric Levels of Cognitive Functioning, Pediatric Cerebral Performance Category (PCPC), school re-entry (IEP/504 reactivation, gradual return), CISG 2022 graded return-to-school THEN return-to-play (Step 1 daily activities → Step 6 normal activity), agitation cautions (avoid benzodiazepines and typical antipsychotics; use environmental modifications first).

~8-10%

Equipment, Orthotics & Wheelchair Seating

Pediatric AFOs (solid AFO, hinged for stance dorsiflexion control, ground-reaction AFO for crouch gait, dynamic AFO), KAFO and reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO) for L2 spina bifida community ambulation, supramalleolar orthosis (SMO) for hypotonia/pronation, Milwaukee CTLSO and Boston TLSO for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (Cobb 25-45° still growing per SRS), TLSO for paralytic scoliosis, manual vs power wheelchairs (power mobility appropriate as early as 18-24 months for severe disability), tilt-in-space, custom contoured seating, pressure mapping, gait trainers (Pacer/Rifton).

~6-8%

Pediatric Spinal Cord Injury

SCIWORA (Spinal Cord Injury Without Radiographic Abnormality — children <8 due to disproportionate head size, ligamentous laxity, horizontal facet joints; cervical predominance), pediatric ASIA examination modifications, autonomic dysreflexia >T6 (sit upright, find noxious stimulus — bladder distension #1), neurogenic bladder management (transition to CIC by age 5-6), thermoregulation impairment, pediatric pressure injury risk, growth-rod surgery for early-onset scoliosis (MAGEC/VEPTR), structured transition to adult SCI care.

~6-8%

Pediatric Stroke & Brachial Plexopathy

Perinatal arterial ischemic stroke (early hand preference <12 months is abnormal — red flag for hemiparetic CP), childhood arterial ischemic stroke etiologies (cardiac, arteriopathy, sickle cell, prothrombotic), sickle cell stroke prevention (chronic transfusion, hydroxyurea, transcranial Doppler screening — TCD velocity ≥200 cm/s), constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) and bimanual training, obstetric brachial plexopathy (Erb C5-C6 — waiter's tip; Klumpke C8-T1 — claw hand + Horner if T1 root involved), microsurgical repair if no biceps recovery by 3-6 months.

~6-8%

Limb Deficiency & Pediatric Prosthetics

Congenital deficiencies (longitudinal — fibular hemimelia is most common LE longitudinal; transverse) vs acquired pediatric amputation (trauma, sarcoma — osteosarcoma rotationplasty), prosthetic prescription tied to developmental milestones (passive UE prosthesis when sitting balance ~6 months; body-powered ~18 months; myoelectric typically 2-3+ years; LE prosthesis when pulling to stand 9-12 months), socket and prosthesis replacement frequency (socket every 12-18 months, full prosthesis q1-2 years through growth), bony overgrowth in acquired transverse LE amputation (revision surgery; rare in congenital).

~5-7%

Autism & Developmental Disabilities

DSM-5 ASD (persistent deficits in social communication AND restricted/repetitive behaviors with onset in early developmental period), M-CHAT-R/F screening at 18 and 24 months (AAP recommendation), ADOS-2 diagnostic, applied behavior analysis (ABA), Down syndrome (atlantoaxial instability — flexion/extension cervical X-rays before contact sports/Special Olympics; symptoms: gait change, neck pain, weakness, hyperreflexia), intellectual disability (DSM-5 — deficits in intellectual AND adaptive functioning), Fragile X (FMR1 CGG repeat — most common inherited ID), Rett syndrome (MECP2; girls; regression with hand-wringing stereotypies).

~5-7%

School-Based Therapy, IEP/504 & Transitions

IDEA 2004 Part C — Early Intervention birth to 3 years (Individualized Family Service Plan — IFSP); IDEA Part B ages 3-21 — Individualized Education Program (IEP) under 13 disability categories; Section 504 of Rehabilitation Act — accommodations for any student with a substantial limitation, broader eligibility than IDEA; FAPE (Free Appropriate Public Education); LRE (Least Restrictive Environment); transition planning required by IEP at age 16 (Individualized Transition Plan — ITP); ADA Title III; Got Transition Six Core Elements for transition from pediatric to adult medical care (typically initiated age 12-14).

~4-6%

Behavioral, Cognitive & Psychosocial

ADHD (DSM-5 — symptoms in two settings before age 12; stimulants methylphenidate/amphetamines, atomoxetine, alpha-2 agonists guanfacine/clonidine), depression and anxiety in chronic pediatric conditions (CDI, SCARED screens), family-centered care, sibling and parental adjustment, sleep disorders in CP/DMD/SMA (OSA, sleep-onset latency, restless sleep), pain assessment by age (FLACC for nonverbal/preverbal 2 mo-7 yr, FACES for 4-12, Numeric Rating Scale for adolescents), nonpharmacologic pain (CBT, distraction, hypnosis, parental coaching).

~4-6%

Gait & Motor Analysis

Normal gait development (independent walking 12-15 months, mature reciprocal arm swing by age 3, adult pattern by 7), instrumented 3D gait analysis (motion capture, surface/fine-wire EMG, kinetics with force plates) used for surgical planning in CP, Edinburgh Visual Gait Score (EVGS), Observational Gait Scale (OGS), common CP gait patterns (true equinus, jump knee, apparent equinus, crouch gait), Duchenne lordotic gait with toe-walking, standardized motor measures — GMFM-66 (CP), PEDI-CAT, BOT-2 motor proficiency, Bayley-4, AIMS for infants.

How to Pass the ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPMR (modified Angoff)
  • Exam length: 175 questions
  • Time limit: 1-day CBT (~6 hours including breaks)
  • Exam fee: ~$2,100 initial PRM subspecialty certification fee (ABPMR 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPMR Pediatric Rehab Study Tips from Top Performers

1GMFCS hip surveillance pearls: AACPDM Care Pathway recommends hip surveillance radiographs based on GMFCS level — GMFCS I children typically do not need routine surveillance; GMFCS II annually until age 7; GMFCS III-V annually through skeletal maturity. The Reimers migration percentage (MP) measures lateral femoral head displacement out of the acetabulum: MP <30% normal, 30-40% at risk (closer monitoring), >40% needs orthopedic evaluation, >50% requires reconstructive surgery. Hip dislocation in nonambulatory CP causes pain, sitting difficulty, and pressure injuries — prevention is essential.
2Spina bifida ambulation by neurologic level (memorize the table): Thoracic — wheelchair only; L1-L2 — household ambulation with KAFO + RGO + walker (rarely community); L3 — community ambulation with KAFO + crutches in childhood, often loses ambulation with growth; L4 — community ambulation with AFO + crutches (quadriceps intact); L5 — community ambulation with AFO (medial hamstrings/anterior tibialis); Sacral — community ambulator with or without orthoses. Knowing this map predicts function, energy expenditure, and orthotic prescription.
3Duchenne MD disease-modifying therapy: Corticosteroids (prednisone 0.75 mg/kg/day or deflazacort 0.9 mg/kg/day) are standard of care for ambulatory DMD, delaying loss of ambulation by 2-3 years and reducing scoliosis and cardiac risk. Exon-skipping antisense oligonucleotides (eteplirsen exon 51, golodirsen/viltolarsen exon 53, casimersen exon 45) restore truncated dystrophin in genotype-eligible boys. Delandistrogene moxeparvovec (Elevidys, AAV9-microdystrophin) is FDA-approved gene therapy for ages 4+. Ataluren (Translarna, EU) is for nonsense mutations. All ages need cardiac (echo/MRI), pulmonary (FVC, NIV/cough assist), and orthopedic (scoliosis, contractures) surveillance.
4Obstetric brachial plexopathy classification: Erb's palsy (C5-C6 ± C7) is most common — affects deltoid, biceps, brachialis, supinator → adducted/internally rotated arm with extended elbow and pronated forearm = waiter's tip posture. Klumpke (C8-T1) is rare in isolation — affects intrinsic hand → claw hand; if T1 root avulsed, sympathetic chain disruption causes Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis). Global C5-T1 is severe. Most cases (80-90%) recover spontaneously — if no biceps recovery (antigravity elbow flexion) by 3-6 months, refer for microsurgical exploration and nerve grafting/transfer.
5IDEA Part B vs Part C vs Section 504 (commonly tested): IDEA Part C — Early Intervention for infants/toddlers birth to 3 years, services delivered through an Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP); transitions to Part B at age 3 (or to community services). IDEA Part B — ages 3-21 with one of 13 specified disability categories, services delivered through an Individualized Education Program (IEP) requiring specialized instruction; transition planning required at age 16 (ITP). Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act — broader eligibility (any substantial limitation in a major life activity) for accommodations only (no specialized instruction); applies in any federally funded school regardless of age.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPMR Pediatric Rehabilitation Medicine certification?

The ABPMR Pediatric Rehabilitation Medicine (PRM) certification is an ABMS subspecialty credential awarded by the American Board of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation. It recognizes physiatrists with advanced expertise in the rehabilitative care of children and adolescents with congenital and acquired disabilities — cerebral palsy, spina bifida, neuromuscular disease (DMD, SMA), pediatric TBI and SCI, pediatric stroke, congenital limb deficiency, autism and developmental disabilities, and the transition from pediatric to adult care. Certification requires passing a single computer-based subspecialty examination.

Who is eligible to take the ABPMR PRM exam?

Candidates must hold current ABPMR primary certification in Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation AND meet one of two training pathways: (1) completion of an ACGME-accredited Pediatric Rehabilitation Medicine fellowship (typically 12-24 months); OR (2) the combined-pathway — completion of consecutive ACGME-accredited residencies in both PM&R AND Pediatrics. Candidates must also hold a valid unrestricted medical license and meet ABPMR professionalism standards. Application is submitted through the ABPMR website during the eligibility window.

What is the format of the ABPMR PRM exam?

The PRM subspecialty exam is a 1-day computer-based examination administered at Pearson VUE test centers, consisting of approximately 175 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions delivered over roughly 6 hours including breaks. Questions frequently include clinical vignettes, growth and development data, imaging (brain MRI, hip radiographs for surveillance, spine X-rays), gait-analysis tracings, photographs of orthoses and prostheses, and pedigrees for genetic neuromuscular disease. Content is distributed across the 2026 ABPMR PRM content outline.

How much does the 2026 ABPMR PRM exam cost?

The 2026 ABPMR PRM subspecialty initial certification fee is approximately $2,100. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABPMR schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Continuing Certification (MOC) includes annual LLSA activities and a 10-year recertification cycle, each with associated fees. Retakes within the eligibility window require full re-registration and fee payment. Fees do not include fellowship tuition, study materials, or practice-question banks.

When is the 2026 PRM exam administered?

The ABPMR PRM subspecialty examination is typically offered once per year in a defined testing window. Applications open several months in advance with a submission deadline prior to the testing window. Candidates schedule specific Pearson VUE appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates and the application window should be confirmed on the ABPMR PRM subspecialty page.

How is the exam scored?

ABPMR uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system with the passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score rather than on other test-takers. Score reports include subdomain performance to guide ongoing learning and any future remediation. Results are typically released several weeks after the testing window closes.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield PRM topics include: GMFCS/MACS/CFCS classification and AACPDM hip surveillance in cerebral palsy; spina bifida ambulation prognosis by neurologic level (thoracic to sacral) and Chiari II/hydrocephalus management; DMD pharmacology (corticosteroids, exon-skipping, gene therapy elevidys) and SMA disease-modifying therapies (nusinersen, onasemnogene abeparvovec, risdiplam); SCIWORA in young children; abusive head trauma triad and reporting; obstetric brachial plexopathy patterns (Erb vs Klumpke); pediatric prosthetics matched to developmental milestones; Down syndrome atlantoaxial instability screening; IDEA Part B vs Part C and IEP vs Section 504; and pediatric pain scales by age (FLACC, FACES, NRS).

How should I study for ABPMR PRM?

Use a structured 12-18 month plan during PRM fellowship. Map to the 2026 ABPMR PRM content outline: lead with cerebral palsy and spasticity, then neuromuscular (DMD/SMA) and spina bifida, then pediatric TBI/SCI, pediatric stroke and brachial plexopathy, congenital limb deficiency, autism/developmental disabilities, school-based therapy and transitions, equipment/orthotics/wheelchair seating, behavioral/psychosocial, and gait analysis. Core resources include Alexander & Matthews Pediatric Rehabilitation, Molnar's Pediatric Rehabilitation, AACPDM care pathways (hip surveillance, dystonia, scoliosis), CureSMA and PPMD clinical care guidelines, Got Transition framework, and the AAPM&R PRM SAE-R modules. Drill timed MCQ sets and complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams.