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100+ Free ABEM EM Practice Questions

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According to the 2020 AHA ACLS guidelines, what is the recommended compression depth for adult CPR?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABEM EM Exam

~305

Qualifying Exam Questions

ABEM Qualifying Exam Information

~8 hours

Total Time at Pearson VUE Center

ABEM / Pearson VUE

$960

2026 Qualifying Exam Fee (Standard)

ABEM 2026 Fee Schedule

~88-92%

Qualifying Exam First-Time Pass Rate

ABEM Public Pass Rate Data

5 years

MyEMCert Continuous Cycle (4 of 8 Modules)

ABEM MyEMCert Program

$247,400+

Emergency Medicine Physicians Median Wage

BLS SOC 29-1218 Emergency Medicine Physicians

The ABEM (American Board of Emergency Medicine) primary certification is earned in two stages. The Qualifying Examination is approximately 305 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions administered at Pearson VUE testing centers, broken into two 3h10m 'books' with a ~1-hour break - total time at the center is about 8 hours. For 2026, the application fee is $960 standard (May 4 - September 8, 2026) and $1,260 late (September 9 - October 15, 2026); the exam is given October 29 - November 7, 2026. After passing the Qualifying Exam, candidates take the new Certifying Examination (launched 2026, replacing the retired Oral Exam) - a half-day in-person exam at the AIME Center in Raleigh, NC, consisting of 10 cases split between clinical decision-making cases (~15 min each) and OSCE stations (10-15 min each) assessing procedural skills, communication, and conflict resolution. Eligibility requires successful completion of an ACGME-accredited emergency medicine residency (3 or 4 years). Continuing certification is maintained through MyEMCert - a continuous 5-year cycle requiring 4 of 8 topic-specific open-book modules (Abdominopelvic; Abnormal Vital Signs and Shock; Head and Neck; Neurology; Resuscitation; Social and Behavioral Health; Thoracorespiratory; Trauma and Bleeding), an annual fee, a practice improvement activity, active license, and agreement to ABEM's Code of Professionalism. MyEMCert replaced the decennial ConCert exam, shifting ABEM to a continuous certification model. The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics lists Emergency Medicine Physicians (SOC 29-1218) among the highest-compensated occupations, with average wages well above $250,000/year.

Sample ABEM EM Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABEM EM exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1According to the 2020 AHA ACLS guidelines, what is the recommended compression depth for adult CPR?
A.At least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)
B.At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
C.At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D.Compression depth is not specified
Explanation: The 2020 AHA Guidelines for CPR and ECC recommend adult chest compressions at a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not exceeding 2.4 inches (6 cm), at a rate of 100-120 per minute, allowing full chest recoil between compressions, with minimization of interruptions. High-quality CPR is the single most important intervention during cardiac arrest.
2A 58-year-old man is in cardiac arrest with an initial rhythm of ventricular fibrillation. After 2 minutes of high-quality CPR and one defibrillation, VF persists. What is the next best step?
A.Resume CPR for 2 minutes and administer epinephrine 1 mg IV; defibrillate again at the end of the cycle
B.Administer 300 mg amiodarone immediately and hold CPR
C.Cardiovert at 100 J synchronized
D.Give sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg
Explanation: In shock-refractory VF/pVT, the 2020 ACLS algorithm alternates 2-minute CPR cycles with defibrillation. Epinephrine 1 mg IV is given every 3-5 minutes (ASAP for non-shockable rhythms; after second shock for VF/VT). Amiodarone 300 mg IV is considered after epinephrine and persistent VF/VT, usually around the third shock. CPR interruption should be minimized.
3After ROSC in a comatose adult survivor of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest, what is the recommended targeted temperature management range?
A.Constant target between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours
B.Cool to 28°C for 12 hours
C.Avoid temperature control; permissive hyperthermia
D.Warm to 38°C for neuroprotection
Explanation: 2020 AHA/ILCOR post-arrest care guidelines recommend selecting and maintaining a constant target temperature between 32°C and 36°C for at least 24 hours in comatose adult survivors of cardiac arrest, with active prevention of fever at least 72 hours. TTM 36°C is non-inferior to 33°C based on the TTM trial.
4A 4-year-old in cardiac arrest has a witnessed VF arrest. What is the recommended initial defibrillation dose using a manual defibrillator?
A.2 J/kg
B.0.5 J/kg
C.10 J/kg
D.Adult dose 200 J biphasic
Explanation: PALS recommends an initial defibrillation dose of 2 J/kg for pediatric VF/pVT, escalating to 4 J/kg for the second shock, then 4-10 J/kg (not exceeding adult maximum) for subsequent shocks. Epinephrine dosing is 0.01 mg/kg (0.1 mL/kg of 1:10,000) every 3-5 minutes.
5In a trauma patient, the ATLS primary survey (ABCDE) evaluates which of the following in the correct order?
A.Airway with cervical spine protection, Breathing, Circulation with hemorrhage control, Disability, Exposure
B.Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability, Environment
C.Circulation, Breathing, Airway, Disability, Exposure
D.Airway, Blood pressure, CPR, Drugs, Electrolytes
Explanation: ATLS 10th edition primary survey: A - Airway with cervical spine protection; B - Breathing and ventilation; C - Circulation with hemorrhage control; D - Disability (GCS, pupils, lateralizing signs); E - Exposure/environmental control. Life-threatening problems are identified and treated in this priority order.
6A hypotensive blunt trauma patient has a positive FAST (free fluid in Morison's pouch). What is the next best step?
A.Emergent operative exploration (to the OR)
B.CT abdomen with IV contrast
C.Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D.Discharge home with close follow-up
Explanation: A hemodynamically unstable trauma patient with a positive FAST (indicating intra-abdominal hemorrhage) requires immediate operative exploration - there is no role for additional imaging. In a hemodynamically stable patient, CT is preferred. FAST sensitivity for intraperitoneal blood is about 85-95% in unstable patients.
7In a trauma patient requiring massive transfusion, what is the recommended ratio of PRBC:FFP:platelets based on the PROPPR trial?
A.1:1:1
B.2:1:1
C.4:1:1
D.1:0:0 (PRBC only)
Explanation: The PROPPR trial (2015) compared 1:1:1 to 1:1:2 ratios and favored 1:1:1 for death from exsanguination at 24 hours and more patients achieving hemostasis. Current ATLS and trauma resuscitation guidelines support 1:1:1 (PRBC:FFP:platelets) during massive transfusion protocols. TXA 1 g IV bolus then 1 g over 8 hours should be given within 3 hours of injury (CRASH-2).
8REBOA (resuscitative endovascular balloon occlusion of the aorta) Zone 1 placement is used for which indication?
A.Non-compressible torso hemorrhage below the diaphragm
B.Cardiac tamponade
C.Tension pneumothorax
D.Pelvic fracture only (never abdominal hemorrhage)
Explanation: REBOA Zone 1 (supraceliac aorta, diaphragm to celiac artery) is used for non-compressible torso hemorrhage below the diaphragm, typically intra-abdominal bleeding. Zone 3 (infrarenal aorta, renal arteries to aortic bifurcation) is for pelvic or junctional lower-extremity hemorrhage. Zone 2 (paravisceral) is generally avoided. REBOA is a temporizing measure; balloon should be deflated or vessel controlled within 30-60 minutes to avoid ischemic injury.
9A 62-year-old with chest pain has a HEART score of 2. What is the estimated 6-week risk of major adverse cardiac event (MACE)?
A.Approximately 1% (low risk - may be discharged with outpatient follow-up)
B.Approximately 20%
C.Approximately 50%
D.Approximately 80%
Explanation: HEART score stratifies chest pain risk: 0-3 = low (~1.7% 6-week MACE) - consider early discharge; 4-6 = moderate (~16.6%) - admit for observation; 7-10 = high (~50.1%) - early invasive strategy. HEART uses History, ECG, Age, Risk factors, Troponin. The HEART Pathway (HEART + serial troponins) permits safe early discharge of appropriate low-risk patients.
10A patient presents with STEMI on ECG. The target door-to-balloon time at a PCI-capable center is:
A.90 minutes or less
B.30 minutes or less
C.180 minutes or less
D.240 minutes or less
Explanation: ACC/AHA guidelines for STEMI recommend a door-to-balloon (first medical contact to device) time of 90 minutes or less at PCI-capable centers. For patients at non-PCI centers who need transfer, the target door-in-door-out is 30 minutes and first medical contact to PCI within 120 minutes. If PCI is not available within 120 minutes, fibrinolysis (within 30 minutes of arrival) is indicated unless contraindicated.

About the ABEM EM Exam

The American Board of Emergency Medicine (ABEM) primary certification is the board certification for emergency physicians. It has two stages: the Qualifying Examination (approximately 305 single-best-answer MCQs over ~8 hours at Pearson VUE testing centers, administered one week each fall) and the Certifying Examination (launched 2026, replacing the Oral Exam) - a half-day in-person exam at the AIME Center in Raleigh, NC, with 10 cases (clinical decision-making + OSCE). Candidates must complete an ACGME-accredited 3- or 4-year EM residency. ABEM-certified emergency physicians earn a BLS SOC 29-1218 median wage of approximately $247,400+ (Emergency Medicine Physicians).

Questions

305 scored questions

Time Limit

Qualifying Exam ~8h; Certifying Exam half-day (10 cases in Raleigh, NC)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced pass/fail (scaled score by ABEM standard-setting)

Exam Fee

Qualifying ~$960 (standard) / $1,260 (late); Certifying ~$1,000-$1,500 (American Board of Emergency Medicine (ABEM) / Pearson VUE (Qualifying) + AIME Center Raleigh NC (Certifying))

ABEM EM Exam Content Outline

~12%

Resuscitation & Cardiac Arrest

2020 AHA ACLS/PALS, high-quality CPR (2-2.4 inches, 100-120/min), VF/pVT (defib, epi q3-5 min, amiodarone 300 mg), post-ROSC targeted temperature 32-36°C, PALS defib 2 J/kg initial, anaphylaxis (IM epi 0.3-0.5 mg, IV infusion, glucagon for beta-blocked).

~11%

Trauma

ATLS primary/secondary survey, FAST (unstable + positive → OR), massive transfusion 1:1:1 (PROPPR), TXA within 3 h (CRASH-2), REBOA Zone 1 (supraceliac) vs Zone 3 (infrarenal), flail chest, ED thoracotomy criteria, NEXUS + Canadian C-spine, Canadian CT Head Rule.

~15%

Cardiology & EKG

HEART/TIMI chest pain risk, STEMI D2B ≤90 min, STEMI equivalents (Wellens, de Winter, Sgarbossa, Brugada, WPW), adenosine for SVT, procainamide for WPW-AF, PE (Wells/PERC/PESI), aortic dissection (esmolol → nicardipine), acute HF (NTG/BiPAP), LVH Sokolow-Lyon.

~8%

Stroke & Neurology

NIHSS, alteplase 0.9 mg/kg within 4.5 h (10% bolus, 90% over 60 min), LVO thrombectomy up to 24 h (DAWN/DEFUSE-3), tPA contraindications, SAH (CT <6h ~100% sens; LP for xanthochromia beyond), status epilepticus (lorazepam first; ESETT second-line LEV/fos-PHT/VPA), HINTS for vertigo.

~7%

Sepsis & Critical Care

SSC Hour-1 Bundle (lactate, cultures, broad-spectrum antibiotics, 30 mL/kg crystalloid, vasopressors to MAP ≥65), norepinephrine first-line, DKA insulin 0.1 U/kg/hr after K >3.3, hyperkalemia (Ca → insulin/D50 → eliminate), thyroid storm sequence (beta-blocker → PTU → iodine 1h after → steroids).

~10%

Toxicology

Acetaminophen (Rumack-Matthew + NAC 21h IV), salicylate (alkalinize, HD), TCA (sodium bicarb for QRS >100), organophosphate (atropine + 2-PAM), digoxin (DigiFab), opioid (naloxone titration), methanol/EG (fomepizole), CO (100% O2 + HBO), warfarin (vitamin K + 4F-PCC), dabigatran (idarucizumab), Xa inhibitors (andexanet).

~10%

Pediatrics

Febrile neonate ≤28 d (full sepsis workup, amp + gent/cefotaxime), AAP bronchiolitis (supportive; avoid routine albuterol/steroids), DKA cerebral edema (3% saline or mannitol), intussusception (target sign, air enema), malrotation/volvulus (bilious emesis = emergency), foreign body, Kocher criteria.

~7%

Airway

2022 ASA Difficult Airway Algorithm + Vortex approach, video laryngoscopy, bougie/scalpel-bougie-tube cricothyrotomy at cricothyroid membrane, supraglottic airway rescue, RSI (ketamine, etomidate, rocuronium, succinylcholine), apneic oxygenation, permissive hypercapnia in asthma.

~6%

Orthopedics

Open fracture Gustilo grading + cefazolin ± aminoglycoside within 1 h, compartment syndrome (delta <30 → fasciotomy), Kocher criteria (septic hip vs transient synovitis), scaphoid fracture (snuffbox tenderness → thumb spica + repeat imaging), hip/shoulder dislocation reduction.

~5%

ENT & Ophthalmology

Peritonsillar abscess (aspiration + amp-sulb/clindamycin), epiglottitis (keep calm, OR airway with ENT/anesthesia), SSNHL (prednisone + urgent ENT <14 days), malignant otitis externa (Pseudomonas → IV pip-tazo), CRAO ('stroke of the eye' + stroke workup), acute angle-closure glaucoma (timolol/apraclonidine/pilocarpine + LPI).

~5%

OB/GYN

Ectopic pregnancy (hCG >1500-3500 + no IUP = ectopic until proven otherwise; MTX vs surgery), severe-feature preeclampsia/HELLP (magnesium, labetalol/hydralazine), postpartum hemorrhage (oxytocin → methylergonovine → carboprost → miso + TXA), threatened abortion (Rh immunoglobulin), ovarian torsion.

~4%

Environmental & Misc

Heat stroke (cold water immersion to <39°C in 30 min), hypothermia (active rewarming + ECMO; 'not dead until warm and dead'), drowning (prioritize ventilation), snake envenomation (CroFab/Anavip for pit vipers), AMS/HACE/HAPE, electrical injury, SJS/TEN (stop drug + burn unit).

How to Pass the ABEM EM Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced pass/fail (scaled score by ABEM standard-setting)
  • Exam length: 305 questions
  • Time limit: Qualifying Exam ~8h; Certifying Exam half-day (10 cases in Raleigh, NC)
  • Exam fee: Qualifying ~$960 (standard) / $1,260 (late); Certifying ~$1,000-$1,500

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABEM EM Study Tips from Top Performers

1Follow the ABEM Model of the Clinical Practice of Emergency Medicine blueprint - the exam is mapped directly to this document, which is freely available at abem.org; use it as your personal study checklist
2Use a high-yield question bank daily throughout residency (ROSH Review, TrueLearn, HippoEd, Peer IX) - target 4,000-5,000 questions by your Qualifying Exam with careful explanation review; the In-Training Exam (ITE) taken each PGY year is an excellent barometer of readiness
3Master high-yield numerics - tPA window (4.5 h); thrombectomy window (24 h); door-to-balloon (90 min); Hour-1 sepsis bundle elements; NAC 21-hour protocol; epinephrine IM 0.3-0.5 mg; CroFab 4-6 vials initial; 1:1:1 massive transfusion ratio; HEART score thresholds; BIS/ETCO2 during intubation
4Rehearse the new Certifying Exam format early - start in late CA-2/PGY-3 with 10-case rehearsal blocks combining clinical decision-making cases and OSCE stations; practice a systematic case framework (Airway, IV/O2/monitor, focused history, broad differential, targeted workup, disposition) that can apply to any stem
5Integrate rotations with reading - during pediatric, toxicology, ICU, ortho, OB, and ENT rotations, read focused chapters the same week and reflect on how bedside experience maps to the Model; Tintinalli's and Rosen's are canonical references; supplement with EM:RAP, Core EM, and HippoEd review podcasts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABEM Qualifying Examination and how is it structured?

The Qualifying Examination is the written portion of ABEM primary certification. It consists of approximately 305 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers across the US and Canada over one week each fall (October 29 - November 7, 2026). Questions cover the Model of the Clinical Practice of Emergency Medicine and include stimulus images such as ECGs and radiographs. The exam is split into two 'books' of 3 hours 10 minutes each, with a ~1-hour break between them - total time at the testing center is approximately 8 hours. Passing requires a criterion-referenced scaled score determined by ABEM standard-setting.

What is the new ABEM Certifying Examination replacing the Oral Exam in 2026?

The Oral Certification Exam retired in 2025. Starting in 2026, ABEM is administering a new in-person Certifying Examination at the AIME Center in Raleigh, NC. The half-day session includes 10 cases split between clinical decision-making cases (~15 minutes each, assessing clinical judgment, prioritization, and adaptability) and OSCE stations (10-15 minutes each, using standardized patients or procedural setups to assess communication, technical skills, and conflict management). There are approximately 9 exam administrations per year to improve scheduling flexibility. The exam fee is expected to be in the $1,000-$1,500 range.

How much does the ABEM exam cost for 2026?

For the 2026 Qualifying Exam: standard application and registration is $960 (May 4 - September 8, 2026) and $1,260 for late registration (September 9 - October 15, 2026). The new Certifying Examination fee is expected to be approximately $1,000-$1,500 pending formal ABEM release. Total initial certification cost is approximately $2,000-$2,800 excluding travel, review courses, and question banks. Fees are set annually by ABEM.

Who is eligible to take the ABEM exam?

Candidates must hold an MD or DO (or equivalent) and have successfully completed an ACGME-accredited emergency medicine residency, typically 3 years (PGY-1 through PGY-3) or 4 years (PGY-1 through PGY-4). Combined pathways exist for EM/IM, EM/Pediatrics, and EM/Family Medicine. Eligibility to sit for initial certification is valid for 5 years after residency. An active unrestricted medical license is required for certification. Foreign medical graduates must complete an ACGME residency in the US to be eligible.

What is MyEMCert and how does it work?

MyEMCert is ABEM's continuous certification program that replaced the decennial ConCert Exam. Diplomates complete 4 of 8 topic-specific open-book online modules per 5-year cycle: (1) Abdominopelvic, (2) Abnormal Vital Signs and Shock, (3) Head and Neck, (4) Neurology, (5) Resuscitation, (6) Social and Behavioral Health, (7) Thoracorespiratory, (8) Trauma and Bleeding. Each module includes 'Key Advances' questions on recent EM literature. You have up to 3 attempts to pass each module. Other requirements: annual fee (replaces prior per-activity fees), one practice improvement activity, compliance with ABEM's medical licensure policy, and agreement to the Code of Professionalism.

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABEM Qualifying Exam?

High-yield areas per the Model of the Clinical Practice of Emergency Medicine: resuscitation (ACLS/PALS algorithms, TTM, anaphylaxis), cardiology/EKG (STEMI + equivalents - Wellens, de Winter, Sgarbossa, Brugada; SVT/WPW; aortic dissection; PE - Wells/PERC/PESI), stroke (NIHSS, tPA ≤4.5h, thrombectomy ≤24h), trauma (ATLS, FAST, massive transfusion 1:1:1, TXA), toxicology (antidotes - NAC, pralidoxime, DigiFab, fomepizole, naloxone, idarucizumab, andexanet, 4F-PCC), pediatrics (febrile neonate, bronchiolitis, DKA cerebral edema, intussusception, bilious emesis in neonate), airway (difficult airway algorithm, cricothyrotomy), and sepsis (Hour-1 bundle, norepinephrine, MAP ≥65).

What is the ABEM Qualifying Exam pass rate?

Historical first-time pass rates on the Qualifying Exam run approximately 88-92%. The previous Oral Exam (retired 2025) had first-time pass rates around 91% in 2023. Overall certification success (both exams combined) is >95% within a few attempts for graduates of ACGME-accredited EM residencies. Specific 2026 pass-rate data for the new Certifying Exam has not yet been reported.

How should I prepare for the ABEM Qualifying Exam?

Build a structured study plan anchored to the ABEM EM Model blueprint. Key resources: Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine or Rosen's Emergency Medicine as reference texts; question banks (ROSH Review, TrueLearn, HippoEd, Peer IX) - aim for 4,000-5,000 questions total during residency; the ABEM In-Training Exam (ITE) taken annually to baseline progress; at least 2 full-length timed practice exams in the final month; high-yield topic review including EKG interpretation (STEMI equivalents), toxicology antidotes, pediatric emergencies, and resuscitation algorithms. Typical successful candidates invest 300-600 hours of dedicated study combined with residency clinical experience.