Free NEBDN Diploma (Dental Nursing) Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the NEBDN National Diploma in Dental Nursing. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

50 Flashcards
11 Topics
100% Free
TermClick to flip

What is GDC Standards for the Dental Team Principle One?

Tap to reveal definition
Card 1 of 50Professionalism, Law and Ethics

Filter by Topic

Jump to Card

About These NEBDN Diploma (Dental Nursing) Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the NEBDN National Diploma in Dental Nursing. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Professionalism, Law and Ethics6 cards
Health, Safety and Infection Control7 cards
Medical Emergencies6 cards
General, Dental and Regional Anatomy4 cards
Oral Disease and Pathology5 cards
Prevention and Oral Health Promotion4 cards
Assessment, Patient Care and Radiography4 cards
Restorative Dentistry and Dental Materials6 cards
Child Dental Health2 cards
Minor Oral Surgery3 cards
Pain and Anxiety Control3 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

What is GDC Standards for the Dental Team Principle One?

'Put patients' interests first' - this is the foundational principle underpinning all nine GDC Standards for the Dental Team.

Which statutory body registers all dental professionals in the UK?

The General Dental Council (GDC). NEBDN awards the qualification, but the GDC maintains the professional register that a nurse must join to legally practise.

What is 'Gillick competence'?

The principle that a child under 16 can give valid consent to their own treatment if a clinician judges they have sufficient understanding and intelligence to fully appreciate what is involved.

What three conditions must be met for consent to dental treatment to be valid?

It must be given voluntarily, by a patient with capacity, and the patient must be adequately informed about the treatment, risks, benefits and alternatives (including no treatment).

How many hours of verifiable CPD must a registered dental nurse complete over a 5-year GDC cycle?

50 hours minimum (with at least 10 hours in any 2-year period), plus an annual CPD statement to the GDC. Dental therapists/hygienists need 75 hours; dentists need 100 hours.

Under UK GDPR and the Data Protection Act 2018, what right does a patient have over their dental records?

The right of access (subject access request) - the practice must normally respond within one month and generally cannot charge a fee to provide copies of records or radiographs.

Which HTM document sets UK primary care dental decontamination standards, and what does it cover?

HTM 01-05 'Decontamination in primary care dental practices' - it sets the standards for cleaning, disinfection and sterilisation of reusable dental instruments in England.

What is the correct order of the instrument decontamination cycle?

Clean, then inspect, then sterilise, then store. Cleaning must always precede sterilisation because residual debris shields micro-organisms from the sterilising process.

What temperature and holding time does a vacuum (type B) autoclave use to sterilise dental instruments?

134-137 degrees Celsius with a minimum holding (plateau) time of 3 minutes.

What is the principle of 'standard (universal) precautions' in infection control?

All blood and body fluids from every patient are treated as potentially infectious, because infection status is often unknown - this protects staff and patients consistently on every procedure.

What is the single most effective routine measure for preventing cross-infection in a dental practice?

Effective hand hygiene (handwashing or alcohol hand rub at the correct moments) - recognised as more important than any single item of PPE.

What is the correct immediate first-aid response to a sharps injury?

Encourage the wound to bleed gently, wash thoroughly under running water without scrubbing or sucking, dry and cover with a waterproof dressing, then report the incident for an occupational health risk assessment.

What feature do amalgam waste containers include, and why?

A mercury suppressant, to limit release of mercury vapour. Amalgam waste and amalgam-containing extracted teeth are collected by a licensed contractor for mercury recovery, kept separate from clinical waste streams.

What is the adult basic life support compression-to-ventilation ratio, and the correct compression rate and depth?

30 compressions to 2 breaths, delivered at 100-120 compressions per minute to a depth of 5-6 cm (Resuscitation Council UK guidance).

What is the first-line drug and dose for anaphylaxis in the dental surgery?

Intramuscular adrenaline 1:1000 (1 mg/mL); adult dose is 500 micrograms (0.5 mL), repeated after 5 minutes if there is no improvement, alongside calling 999.

What is the first-line emergency treatment for an acute asthma attack in the dental chair?

A salbutamol (beta-2 agonist) inhaler delivering 100 micrograms per actuation, ideally via a spacer, to relieve bronchospasm.

A conscious diabetic patient becomes shaky, sweaty and confused mid-treatment. What is the immediate management?

This suggests hypoglycaemia - give fast-acting oral glucose (sugary drink, glucose tablets or gel) if the patient is conscious and able to swallow; if unconscious, give intramuscular glucagon 1 mg.

What medication is given for a suspected myocardial infarction (heart attack) in the dental surgery, and why?

300 mg aspirin, chewed (if not allergic), because it inhibits platelet aggregation. Oxygen and reassurance are also given while awaiting the ambulance.

What is the correct management of a patient having a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

Protect the patient from injury, do not restrain them, do not place anything in the mouth, and time the seizure. If convulsions last over 5 minutes, buccal midazolam is indicated and 999 should be called.

In FDI two-digit tooth notation, what does the tooth number 16 refer to?

The upper right first permanent molar. The first digit gives the quadrant (1 = upper right permanent) and the second digit gives the tooth position from the midline (6 = first molar).

How many teeth are in a complete primary (deciduous) dentition, and a complete permanent dentition?

20 teeth in the primary dentition (2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 molars per quadrant, no premolars); 32 teeth in the permanent dentition.

Which cranial nerve provides sensory innervation to the teeth and most of the face, and what are its three divisions?

The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), with ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2) and mandibular (V3) divisions; local anaesthetic blocks target branches of V2 and V3.

What structure attaches the root of a tooth (cementum) to the alveolar bone?

The periodontal ligament - a band of fibrous connective tissue that suspends the tooth in its socket, allows slight physiological movement and provides proprioception.

What is the critical pH below which enamel begins to demineralise during an acid attack?

Approximately pH 5.5. After sugar intake, plaque pH can fall below this level for 20-30 minutes before saliva buffers it back up (the Stephan curve).

What is the key difference between gingivitis and periodontitis?

Gingivitis is reversible plaque-induced inflammation of the gingiva with no loss of attachment. Periodontitis involves irreversible destruction of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone.

What red-flag features of a mouth ulcer should prompt urgent referral to exclude oral cancer?

A non-healing ulcer with raised, rolled margins persisting more than 3 weeks warrants urgent referral (suspected cancer pathway) for specialist assessment and biopsy.

What are the two most significant modifiable risk factors for oral cancer?

Tobacco use and alcohol - their effects are synergistic when combined. HPV and areca/betel nut use are also recognised risk factors.

What is the difference between dental plaque and calculus?

Plaque is a soft bacterial biofilm that is the primary cause of caries and periodontal disease; calculus is plaque that has mineralised (hardened) with calcium and phosphate salts and must be removed by professional scaling.

What fluoride concentration toothpaste does Delivering Better Oral Health recommend for most adults and children?

1350-1500 ppm fluoride. Higher-strength pastes (2800 or 5000 ppm) are prescription-only for higher-caries-risk patients.

Why should patients 'spit, don't rinse' after brushing?

Rinsing with water washes away residual fluoride from the toothpaste; spitting without rinsing leaves a higher concentration of fluoride in contact with the teeth, maximising the protective effect.

For caries risk, what matters more: total daily sugar amount or frequency of intake?

Frequency of free-sugar intake matters more than total amount, because each exposure produces a separate acid attack on the enamel.

What is the purpose of a fissure sealant, and where is it typically applied?

A resin or glass ionomer material placed into the pits and fissures of newly erupted permanent posterior teeth to create a smooth, cleansable surface and reduce occlusal caries risk.

What regulations protect the patient (as opposed to staff) during dental radiography, and what roles do they define?

IR(ME)R 2017 (Ionising Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations) - requiring every exposure to be justified, optimised and authorised, and defining the referrer, practitioner and operator roles. IRR 2017 separately protects staff and the public.

Which radiographic view is standard for detecting interproximal caries and assessing crestal bone levels in posterior teeth?

The bitewing radiograph - it captures the crowns of upper and lower posterior teeth plus crestal bone on one film.

What does a Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) score of 4 in a sextant indicate?

A probing depth of 6 mm or more, indicating advanced periodontal disease requiring detailed assessment and treatment. Scores range 0 (healthy) to 4, with an asterisk denoting furcation involvement.

Why is it clinically important to note that a patient takes warfarin before a dental extraction?

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prolongs clotting and increases the risk of prolonged post-operative bleeding; INR is often checked and local haemostatic measures planned.

What are the main components of dental amalgam?

Liquid mercury mixed with an alloy powder composed mainly of silver, tin and copper.

What acid and concentration is used to etch enamel before bonding a composite restoration, and why?

Approximately 37% phosphoric acid - it creates a micro-rough surface and removes the smear layer, allowing a strong micromechanical bond with the bonding agent and composite.

What key property makes glass ionomer cement useful for high-caries-risk patients and children?

It chemically bonds to tooth structure and releases fluoride over time, offering ongoing caries protection - valuable as a restoration, base, liner or luting cement.

How is a light-cured composite restoration set (polymerised) chairside?

With a blue curing light (typically around 450-470 nm wavelength) that activates the photoinitiator, hardening the material in increments; the light should never be viewed directly.

What material is standard for obturating (filling) a cleaned and shaped root canal?

Gutta-percha, used with a sealer, fills the canal space three-dimensionally to prevent bacterial reinfection of the root canal system.

Why is a rubber dam placed during root canal treatment?

To isolate the tooth, improve moisture control and visibility, and crucially protect the airway from inhaling or swallowing small instruments and irrigants during endodontic treatment.

How much fluoride toothpaste should be used for children under 3, and for children aged 3-6?

A smear of toothpaste containing at least 1000 ppm fluoride for children under 3; a pea-sized amount of at least 1000 ppm fluoride for children aged 3-6, brushed by/with an adult twice daily from first tooth eruption.

What is the most common cause of early childhood (nursing bottle) caries?

Frequent or prolonged exposure to sugary drinks in a feeding bottle, especially at night, which pools sugar around the upper anterior teeth and drives rapid decay.

What is dry socket (alveolar osteitis) and when does it typically present?

Loss or failure of the blood clot in an extraction socket, presenting 2-3 days after extraction with severe throbbing pain, a bad taste and an empty-looking socket.

What post-extraction advice should a dental nurse give to encourage clot formation and prevent complications?

Bite firmly on gauze for about 20-30 minutes; avoid rinsing, hot food/drinks, alcohol, smoking and vigorous exercise for 24 hours; and avoid disturbing the socket (e.g. with the tongue or a straw).

What is a periapical (dental) abscess?

A collection of pus at the apex of a non-vital (dead) tooth, caused by bacterial infection of the pulp, which may cause swelling and can point and discharge.

What is the most commonly used local anaesthetic in UK dental practice, and what is it typically combined with?

Lidocaine (lignocaine) 2%, typically combined with adrenaline (epinephrine) 1:80,000 as a vasoconstrictor to prolong anaesthesia and reduce bleeding at the injection site.

What gas mixture is delivered during inhalation sedation in dentistry?

A titrated mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen, adjusted to the individual patient to produce relaxation while the patient remains conscious and cooperative.

What defines 'conscious sedation' in dentistry, and what is the reversal agent for midazolam?

Conscious sedation must maintain a level at which the patient remains responsive to verbal command throughout. Flumazenil is the specific benzodiazepine reversal agent for midazolam and must be available during IV sedation.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the NEBDN written exam?

The written exam is taken online (MaxExam software) and has 100 questions combining 1-from-5 single best answer MCQs and Extended Matching Questions (EMQs), completed in 2 hours.

Do I need to pass the written exam before the OSCE?

Yes. Candidates must pass the written exam first. The OSCE then follows as a 12-station assessment split into a 7-station workbook part (1 hour) and 5 live stations.

What topics carry the most weight on the NEBDN written exam?

Health, Safety and Infection Control (14%) and Restorative Dentistry and Dental Materials (13%) carry the highest weighting, followed by Professionalism, Law and Ethics (11%) and Medical Emergencies (11%).

Does passing the NEBDN Diploma let me work as a dental nurse?

Yes. Successful completion makes you eligible to apply to the General Dental Council (GDC) for registration as a dental nurse in the UK, which is required to practise.

Same family resources

Explore More UK Dental Registration Exams

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.