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125+ Free ORE Part 1 Practice Questions

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Sample ORE Part 1 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ORE Part 1 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 125+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the buccal gingivae of the mandibular molar teeth?
A.Lingual nerve
B.Long buccal (buccal) nerve
C.Inferior alveolar nerve (mandibular dental branch)
D.Mental nerve
Explanation: The long buccal nerve, a branch of the anterior division of the mandibular nerve (CN V3), supplies the buccal gingivae adjacent to the mandibular molars. This is why a standard inferior alveolar nerve block does not anaesthetise this soft tissue and a separate long buccal infiltration is often required for molar extractions.
2Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve (CN V2) exit the cranial cavity?
A.Foramen ovale
B.Foramen rotundum
C.Foramen spinosum
D.Superior orbital fissure
Explanation: The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the middle cranial fossa through the foramen rotundum to enter the pterygopalatine fossa. From there it continues as the infraorbital nerve. This is a core piece of head and neck anatomy underpinning maxillary local anaesthesia.
3During tooth development, which cells are responsible for laying down dentine?
A.Ameloblasts
B.Odontoblasts
C.Cementoblasts
D.Fibroblasts
Explanation: Odontoblasts differentiate from the dental papilla and secrete predentine which mineralises to dentine; they retain a process within the dentinal tubule throughout life. Ameloblasts, by contrast, form enamel and are lost after eruption, which is why enamel cannot be regenerated.
4A patient cannot wrinkle the skin of the forehead and cannot fully close the right eye after a parotid region injury. Which nerve is most likely damaged?
A.Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B.Facial nerve (CN VII)
C.Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D.Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Explanation: The facial nerve provides motor supply to the muscles of facial expression, including frontalis (forehead) and orbicularis oculi (eye closure). It passes through the parotid gland, so injury here produces a lower motor neurone facial palsy affecting the whole side of the face.
5Which muscle is primarily responsible for protrusion of the mandible?
A.Temporalis (posterior fibres retract the mandible)
B.Masseter (powerful elevator of the mandible)
C.Lateral pterygoid
D.Medial pterygoid
Explanation: The lateral pterygoid muscles, acting bilaterally, protrude the mandible by pulling the condyles and articular discs forward down the articular eminence. Unilateral contraction produces contralateral lateral movement, which is the basis of clinical mandibular movement testing.
6Lymph from the tip of the tongue drains first to which group of lymph nodes?
A.Submental nodes
B.Submandibular nodes
C.Jugulo-omohyoid node
D.Pre-auricular nodes
Explanation: The tip (apex) of the tongue drains bilaterally to the submental lymph nodes before continuing to the deep cervical chain. Knowing the orderly drainage pathways is important for assessing the spread of oral squamous cell carcinoma and infection.
7Which salivary gland produces predominantly serous secretion and is the largest of the major salivary glands?
A.Submandibular gland
B.Sublingual gland
C.Parotid gland
D.Minor labial glands
Explanation: The parotid gland is the largest major salivary gland and produces an almost entirely serous (watery, enzyme-rich) secretion via Stensen's duct opposite the maxillary second molar. Its serous nature is relevant to mumps and to sialography findings.
8Saliva contributes to caries resistance primarily through which mechanism?
A.Lowering oral pH to inhibit commensal bacteria
B.Buffering acids and supplying calcium and phosphate for remineralisation
C.Providing fermentable substrate for oral bacteria
D.Increasing salivary viscosity to trap food
Explanation: Saliva is supersaturated with calcium and phosphate and contains bicarbonate buffers that neutralise plaque acids, raising pH above the critical level and driving remineralisation of early enamel lesions. Reduced salivary flow (xerostomia) therefore substantially increases caries risk.
9Which vitamin deficiency classically causes scurvy, with gingival swelling, bleeding, and impaired wound healing?
A.Vitamin A
B.Vitamin B12
C.Vitamin C
D.Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is an essential cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase in collagen synthesis. Deficiency impairs collagen cross-linking, producing the spongy, bleeding gingivae, poor wound healing, and perifollicular haemorrhages of scurvy.
10What is the approximate critical pH below which hydroxyapatite of enamel begins to demineralise?
A.pH 7.0
B.pH 6.5
C.pH 5.5
D.pH 4.0
Explanation: Enamel hydroxyapatite begins to dissolve when plaque pH falls below approximately 5.5, the critical pH at which the surrounding fluid becomes unsaturated with respect to hydroxyapatite. Frequent sugar intake repeatedly drops pH below this threshold, driving net demineralisation.

About the ORE Part 1 Exam

ORE Part 1 is the written stage of the GDC's Overseas Registration Examination, which overseas-qualified dentists must pass to register and practise in the UK. It tests the application of dental science, human disease, clinical dentistry, and UK law, ethics, and safety to clinical practice across two three-hour computer-based papers.

Assessment

Two computer-based papers sat within one sitting: Paper A (clinically applied dental science and human disease) and Paper B (clinical dentistry, law, ethics, and health and safety). Both must be passed to progress to Part 2.

Time Limit

Each paper lasts three hours (two papers in total).

Passing Score

No fixed published pass mark; each paper is standard-set. Candidates receive a percentage score out of 100 per paper plus an overall pass/fail, and must pass both papers in one sitting.

Exam Fee

GBP 485 per attempt per the current GDC ORE Part 1 page; some 2026 candidate sources quote GBP 584 under the provider transition. Verify the current fee with the GDC before booking. Up to four attempts at Part 1 are permitted. (General Dental Council (GDC), UK)

ORE Part 1 Exam Content Outline

25%

Clinically Applied Dental Science (Paper A)

Oral/dental anatomy, histology, embryology, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology, and immunology applied to clinical scenarios.

25%

Clinically Applied Human Disease & Pharmacology (Paper A)

Oral and systemic pathology, oral medicine, human disease management, pharmacology and prescribing, and medical emergencies.

35%

Clinical Dentistry (Paper B)

Restorative, endodontics, periodontology, prosthodontics, orthodontics, paediatric dentistry, oral surgery, radiography, and special care dentistry.

8%

Law, Ethics & Professionalism (Paper B)

GDC Standards for the Dental Team, consent and capacity, confidentiality, safeguarding, complaints, candour, and record-keeping.

7%

Health & Safety and Dental Public Health (Paper B)

Infection control and decontamination (HTM 01-05), COSHH, RIDDOR, radiation protection (IR(ME)R), and population prevention.

How to Pass the ORE Part 1 Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: No fixed published pass mark; each paper is standard-set. Candidates receive a percentage score out of 100 per paper plus an overall pass/fail, and must pass both papers in one sitting.
  • Assessment: Two computer-based papers sat within one sitting: Paper A (clinically applied dental science and human disease) and Paper B (clinical dentistry, law, ethics, and health and safety). Both must be passed to progress to Part 2.
  • Time limit: Each paper lasts three hours (two papers in total).
  • Exam fee: GBP 485 per attempt per the current GDC ORE Part 1 page; some 2026 candidate sources quote GBP 584 under the provider transition. Verify the current fee with the GDC before booking. Up to four attempts at Part 1 are permitted.

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 125 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ORE Part 1 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Practise applying knowledge to clinical vignettes rather than rote recall, since both papers test how you use dental science, human disease, and professional knowledge to choose the most appropriate action.
2Anchor your revision in UK standards and guidance: the BNF and SDCEP for prescribing and anticoagulation, NICE for endocarditis prophylaxis, Delivering Better Oral Health for prevention, GDC Standards for the Dental Team, and IR(ME)R and HTM 01-05 for radiography and decontamination.
3Drill high-yield Paper B topics that overseas candidates often find unfamiliar, including UK consent and capacity law, safeguarding, the BPE and IOTN indices, and medical emergency management to Resuscitation Council UK protocols.

Frequently Asked Questions

What does ORE Part 1 consist of?

Two computer-based written papers sat in one sitting. Paper A covers clinically applied dental science and human disease; Paper B covers clinical dentistry, law and ethics, and health and safety. Each paper lasts three hours and uses Single Best Answer and Extended Matching Question formats.

What is the pass mark for ORE Part 1?

There is no fixed published pass mark. Each paper is standard-set after the exam, so the threshold can vary slightly between sittings. Candidates receive a percentage score out of 100 per paper and an overall pass/fail, and must pass both papers in the same sitting to progress to Part 2.

How much does ORE Part 1 cost and how many attempts are allowed?

The current GDC ORE Part 1 page lists a fee of GBP 485 per attempt, although some 2026 candidate sources cite GBP 584 under the provider transition; confirm the current fee with the GDC. Candidates are permitted up to four attempts at Part 1.

Who runs ORE Part 1?

ORE Part 1 is set by the General Dental Council and delivered through a contracted academic provider (King's College London under the recent contract, with UCL Consultants Ltd confirmed as the preferred bidder from late 2025). It is held at venues in London.