NCATT AET Exam Flashcards

Q: How are these 50 NCATT AET cards distributed?

ASTM and SpaceTEC do not publish exam-domain percentages. The official NCATT AET Study Guide that SpaceTEC currently links contains 34 standards areas across four sections: 21 Introductory and General Requirements, 4 Common Maintenance Practices, 7 Fundamentals of On-Equipment Maintenance, and 2 Aircraft Fundamentals. Proportional conversion gives this set 31, 6, 10, and 3 cards respectively. This is a standards-count allocation, not a claim about undisclosed exam item weights.

Q: How many questions are on the NCATT AET exam?

The current ASTM NCATT program information states that AET is a 90-question written exam with a two-hour time limit. SpaceTEC Partners administers ASTM NCATT written examinations through Credential Testing Services.

Q: What score is required to pass the NCATT AET exam?

A score of 73% is required to pass AET. ASTM and SpaceTEC do not publish a candidate pass-rate statistic, so the exam pass rate should not be inferred from the 73% passing standard.

Q: Are there prerequisites for the NCATT AET exam?

No. ASTM NCATT examinations are open regardless of age, career field, training, education, or experience. AET is the gateway credential: candidates must pass it before taking an AET endorsement examination.

Q: What is the NCATT AET retake policy?

ASTM and SpaceTEC publish no limit on the number of attempts and require a new exam fee for every retake. They do not publish a fixed waiting period or a separate rule after three failures, so confirm scheduling availability with Credential Testing Services before rebooking.

Q: How long does the NCATT AET certification remain valid?

ASTM NCATT certifications follow a five-year renewal cycle. SpaceTEC notes that this expiration and renewal policy applies to all ASTM NCATT certifications as of January 1, 2022.

Question 1

How do voltage, current, and resistance relate in a DC circuit?

Accepted Answer

Ohm's Law states that current equals voltage divided by resistance: I = E/R. Increasing voltage raises current, while increasing resistance lowers current when the other quantity is unchanged.

Question 2

How is electrical power calculated from voltage and current?

Accepted Answer

Power is the rate of electrical work and is measured in watts. Use P = E × I; Ohm's Law also gives P = I²R or P = E²/R.

Question 3

What remains common in a series circuit?

Accepted Answer

A series circuit has one current path, so the same current passes through every component. Individual resistance values add, and the source voltage divides among the loads.

Question 4

What distinguishes a parallel circuit from a series circuit?

Accepted Answer

Parallel branches share the same voltage but divide current among multiple paths. Their equivalent resistance is always less than the smallest individual branch resistance.

Question 5

What does Kirchhoff's Voltage Law require around a closed loop?

Accepted Answer

The algebraic sum of all voltage rises and drops around a closed loop is zero. Equivalently, the component voltage drops equal the applied source voltage.

Question 6

What does Kirchhoff's Current Law require at a junction?

Accepted Answer

The algebraic sum of currents at a junction is zero: total current entering the junction equals total current leaving it. Charge does not accumulate at the node.

Question 7

What safe sequence isolates a basic circuit fault?

Accepted Answer

Inspect first, then use voltage or current measurements only on an energized circuit when required. De-energize and isolate power before resistance or continuity tests because an ohmmeter supplies its own test current.

Question 8

How are voltmeters and ammeters connected differently?

Accepted Answer

Connect a voltmeter in parallel across the measured points. Connect an ammeter in series so load current passes through it; placing an ammeter across a source can create a short.

Question 9

How are AC frequency and period related?

Accepted Answer

Frequency is the number of complete cycles per second, measured in hertz. Period is the duration of one cycle, and the two are reciprocals: T = 1/f.

Question 10

What does the RMS value of a sine wave represent?

Accepted Answer

RMS is the effective AC value that produces the same heating as an equal DC value. For a sine wave, RMS equals approximately 0.707 times peak value.

Question 11

What phase relationship does ELI describe?

Accepted Answer

In a purely inductive AC circuit, voltage E leads current I. Inductive reactance increases with both frequency and inductance: XL = 2πfL.

Question 12

What phase relationship does ICE describe?

Accepted Answer

In a purely capacitive AC circuit, current I leads voltage E. Capacitive reactance decreases as frequency or capacitance increases: XC = 1/(2πfC).

Question 13

When does resonance occur in an AC circuit?

Accepted Answer

Resonance occurs when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal, XL = XC. Their opposing effects cancel, leaving a series RLC circuit with minimum impedance determined by resistance.

Question 14

How do true power, apparent power, and power factor differ?

Accepted Answer

True power is measured in watts; apparent power is RMS volts times RMS amperes in VA. Power factor is true power divided by apparent power and equals 1 for a purely resistive load.

Question 15

What information do resistor color bands encode?

Accepted Answer

The bands identify significant digits, a multiplier, and tolerance. Read them in the specified order to determine resistance, then confirm suspect or illegible components with an ohmmeter.

Question 16

Why isolate a resistor before measuring its value?

Accepted Answer

Other circuit paths can appear in parallel and make an in-circuit resistance reading falsely low. Isolating one lead lets the ohmmeter measure the component rather than the surrounding network.

Question 17

How does an open inductor appear during a continuity check?

Accepted Answer

An open winding has no continuous path between its leads, so an ohmmeter indicates very high or infinite resistance. The coil cannot carry its intended current.

Question 18

How do open and shorted capacitors appear during fault isolation?

Accepted Answer

An open capacitor cannot charge or pass the expected changing signal; a shorted capacitor presents very low resistance and may draw excessive current. De-energize and discharge it before resistance or capacitance tests.

Question 19

How does transformer turns ratio affect voltage and current?

Accepted Answer

More secondary turns than primary turns produce a step-up in voltage and a corresponding current decrease. Fewer secondary turns produce a voltage step-down and current increase.

Question 20

What can zero transformer secondary voltage indicate?

Accepted Answer

After confirming correct primary input, zero secondary output can indicate an open winding, a shorted winding, or another loss of coupling. De-energize before resistance checks.

Question 21

How do normally open and normally closed relay contacts behave?

Accepted Answer

Contact names describe the de-energized state. Energizing the relay coil closes normally open contacts and opens normally closed contacts, allowing a low-current control circuit to switch another circuit.

Question 22

What electrical-to-mechanical action does a solenoid provide?

Accepted Answer

Energizing its coil creates a magnetic field that moves an iron core or plunger. This converts electrical control into linear mechanical motion.

Question 23

How does a diode perform rectification?

Accepted Answer

A diode conducts primarily in one direction and blocks the opposite polarity. Arrangements such as a four-diode bridge use that behavior to convert both AC half-cycles into pulsating DC.

Question 24

How do active, passive, and frequency-selective filters differ?

Accepted Answer

Active filters use powered components and can provide gain; passive filters do not. Low-pass and high-pass select below or above cutoff, while band-pass selects a range and band-stop rejects one.

Question 25

What sustains oscillation in an oscillator circuit?

Accepted Answer

An amplifier restores energy lost in the circuit, while regenerative positive feedback returns an in-phase portion of output to the input. A frequency-selective network sets the operating frequency.

Question 26

How do astable, monostable, and bistable multivibrators differ?

Accepted Answer

Astable circuits free-run between two temporary states, monostable circuits produce one timed pulse after a trigger, and bistable circuits retain either of two stable states.

Question 27

What is the purpose of a limiter or clipper circuit?

Accepted Answer

A limiter prevents a signal from exceeding selected positive, negative, or dual thresholds. Diode orientation and any applied bias determine where the waveform is clipped.

Question 28

How do octal and hexadecimal shorten binary notation?

Accepted Answer

Each octal digit represents a three-bit group, while each hexadecimal digit represents a four-bit group. Grouping from the radix point makes conversion systematic.

Question 29

When do AND, OR, and XOR gates produce a high output?

Accepted Answer

AND requires all inputs high; OR requires at least one high input; XOR requires unlike inputs in the two-input case. Their truth tables define the exact behavior.

Question 30

What do NOT, NAND, and NOR operations do?

Accepted Answer

NOT inverts one input. NAND is an AND result followed by inversion, and NOR is an OR result followed by inversion; NAND and NOR can each implement other logic functions.

Question 31

How do flip-flops, counters, and displays work together?

Accepted Answer

A flip-flop stores one binary state. Connected flip-flops can count input pulses, and decoder circuitry converts the stored count into segment signals for a numeric display.

Question 32

What is the first priority when someone contacts live electrical power?

Accepted Answer

De-energize the source as quickly and safely as possible before touching the victim. Use approved isolation procedures, then begin appropriate first aid and summon emergency help.

Question 33

Why must RF and microwave work begin with a hazard assessment?

Accepted Answer

These electromagnetic energy sources can expose personnel even without direct conductor contact. Identify the source, control access and energy, and use the required procedures and protective equipment.

Question 34

What is the maintenance purpose of an SDS?

Accepted Answer

A Safety Data Sheet identifies a chemical's hazards, handling and storage controls, required protective equipment, and emergency response. Technicians consult it before using an unfamiliar hazardous material.

Question 35

What does Clean As You Go accomplish in FOD prevention?

Accepted Answer

It removes debris as work proceeds, accounts for tools and materials, and prevents dropped or forgotten objects from remaining near aircraft systems where they could cause damage.

Question 36

How do an Airworthiness Directive and a service bulletin differ?

Accepted Answer

An Airworthiness Directive is a mandatory regulatory action. A manufacturer's service bulletin is generally advisory unless an AD or another applicable requirement makes its instructions mandatory.

Question 37

When is AC 43.13 used instead of manufacturer maintenance data?

Accepted Answer

Use current manufacturer instructions when they cover the task. AC 43.13 provides acceptable methods when specific instructions are absent and its conditions for use are satisfied.

Question 38

Why must the tool match the fastener and task?

Accepted Answer

The correct tool protects the hardware, aircraft, and technician. Use calibrated precision or torque tools when specified, and never substitute a tool for a purpose it was not designed to perform.

Question 39

How does an ESD workstation protect sensitive electronics?

Accepted Answer

A grounded work surface, personnel grounding, careful handling, and protective packaging equalize charge and control discharge paths before static energy can damage a circuit or component.

Question 40

What conditions produce galvanic corrosion?

Accepted Answer

Galvanic corrosion requires dissimilar metals in electrical contact and an electrolyte. Control it with approved isolation between metals, sealants or finishes, moisture control, proper storage, and good housekeeping.

Question 41

What is the correct purpose of safety wire?

Accepted Answer

Safety wire restrains a fastener or connector against vibration-induced loosening. Route and tension it so the wire tends to hold the secured item in the tightening direction.

Question 42

When are coaxial, twisted-pair, and single-conductor wiring used?

Accepted Answer

Coaxial cable protects RF signal paths, twisted pairs reduce induced interference in balanced circuits, and single-conductor wiring uses the bonded aircraft structure as the return path.

Question 43

How does AWG number relate to conductor size?

Accepted Answer

American Wire Gauge uses an inverse scale: a larger AWG number means a smaller conductor diameter. Selection must also account for current, voltage drop, temperature, routing, and mechanical protection.

Question 44

What can a de-energized continuity test reveal?

Accepted Answer

It can verify a complete path and help locate an open conductor, switch, fuse, lamp, or connection. Isolate the circuit enough to prevent parallel paths from masking the fault.

Question 45

How do an open circuit and a short circuit differ?

Accepted Answer

An open breaks the intended current path. A short creates an unintended low-resistance path, often causing excessive current; ground faults are shorts to structure or another return path.

Question 46

How can a meter connection change the circuit being tested?

Accepted Answer

Meters are part of the circuit during measurement. A high-impedance voltmeter minimizes parallel loading, while an ammeter's low resistance requires a correct series connection and range.

Question 47

What can an oscilloscope show that a basic voltmeter cannot?

Accepted Answer

An oscilloscope displays voltage versus time, revealing waveform shape, peak-to-peak amplitude, period, frequency, timing, and phase relationships that an averaged numeric reading can hide.

Question 48

Which motions and controls correspond to the three aircraft axes?

Accepted Answer

Roll is motion about the longitudinal axis and is controlled by ailerons; pitch is about the lateral axis with elevators; yaw is about the vertical axis with the rudder.

Question 49

What force balance defines steady, level, unaccelerated flight?

Accepted Answer

Lift balances weight and thrust balances drag. A disturbance to either pair produces acceleration until the forces balance again or the aircraft establishes a new flight condition.

Question 50

Why is a qualified person stationed in the cockpit during towing?

Accepted Answer

The cockpit person can operate the brakes if the tow bar fails or another emergency develops. The towing team must follow aircraft-specific instructions, communicate clearly, and maintain clearance.

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