Free Biology 30 Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Alberta Diploma Exam - Biology 30. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

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Resting membrane potential of a neuron

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Card 1 of 50Nervous System

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About These Biology 30 Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Alberta Diploma Exam - Biology 30. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Nervous System10 cards
Endocrine & Homeostasis7 cards
Reproduction7 cards
Development4 cards
Cell Division4 cards
Mendelian Genetics6 cards
Molecular Genetics4 cards
Population Dynamics6 cards
Exam Format2 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

Resting membrane potential of a neuron

About -70 mV (inside negative relative to outside). Maintained by the sodium-potassium pump (3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in) plus selective K+ permeability. A polarized neuron is 'at rest' but ready to fire.

Depolarization vs. repolarization (which ion moves?)

Depolarization = Na+ rushes IN through voltage-gated Na+ channels (rises toward +35 mV). Repolarization = K+ moves OUT, restoring negativity. Knowing which gate opens tells you which phase you're in.

All-or-none principle

Once threshold (~-55 mV) is reached, an action potential fires fully at a fixed size; below threshold, nothing fires. Stimulus STRENGTH is coded by firing FREQUENCY, not by larger spikes.

Saltatory conduction & nodes of Ranvier

Myelin insulates the axon; the action potential 'jumps' between gaps called nodes of Ranvier, where Na+ channels are concentrated. Result: much faster impulse conduction than in unmyelinated axons.

Absolute refractory period (why it matters)

Brief interval after a spike when Na+ channels are inactivated, so no new action potential can fire regardless of stimulus. This forces one-way impulse travel and limits maximum firing rate.

Reflex arc pathway

Receptor to sensory (afferent) neuron to interneuron in the spinal cord to motor (efferent) neuron to effector. The brain isn't required, which is why reflexes are fast and protective.

Sympathetic vs. parasympathetic division

Sympathetic = 'fight-or-flight' (raises heart rate, dilates pupils, diverts blood to muscles). Parasympathetic = 'rest-and-digest' (the opposite). Both are autonomic and act antagonistically.

Rods vs. cones

Cones detect colour and work in bright light (densest at the fovea). Rods are highly light-sensitive for dim-light and motion vision but give no colour. Dark adaptation shifts vision from cones to rods.

Accommodation (eye)

Ciliary muscles change lens SHAPE to focus on near vs. far objects (lens rounds for near). Don't confuse with refraction (light bending) or dilation (pupil-size change by the iris).

Brain regions: cerebellum vs. medulla oblongata

Cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, balance, and posture. Medulla oblongata (brainstem) controls involuntary vitals: heart rate, breathing, blood pressure. Damage to the medulla is often fatal.

Endocrine vs. exocrine glands

Endocrine glands are DUCTLESS and secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream to reach distant target cells. Exocrine glands (sweat, salivary) release secretions through DUCTS to a surface or cavity.

Steroid vs. protein/peptide hormones (mechanism)

Steroid hormones (e.g., estrogen) are lipid-soluble, pass through the membrane, and bind intracellular receptors, often altering gene transcription. Protein hormones (e.g., insulin) bind SURFACE receptors and act via second messengers.

Insulin vs. glucagon

Insulin (beta cells) LOWERS blood glucose: promotes cell uptake and glycogen storage. Glucagon (alpha cells) RAISES blood glucose: triggers liver glycogen breakdown. Antagonistic pair from the pancreatic islets.

Negative feedback (the core homeostatic mechanism)

A deviation triggers a response that REVERSES it back to a set point (e.g., high glucose to insulin to lower glucose). Contrast positive feedback, which AMPLIFIES a change (e.g., childbirth, LH surge).

ADH and water balance

When dehydrated, ADH rises, making kidney collecting ducts more permeable so MORE water is reabsorbed into blood and less is lost in urine. This conserves body water and restores blood volume.

Thyroxine + iodine + TSH feedback

Thyroxine (T4) sets metabolic rate and REQUIRES iodine; deficiency causes goitre. High thyroxine inhibits TSH (pituitary) and TRH (hypothalamus) by negative feedback to keep levels in range.

Adrenaline vs. cortisol (stress hormones)

Adrenaline (epinephrine), from the adrenal MEDULLA, drives the rapid SHORT-term stress response (heart rate up, airways open). Cortisol, from the adrenal CORTEX, handles LONG-term stress and raises blood glucose.

Where is sperm made vs. matured?

Sperm are PRODUCED in the seminiferous tubules of the testes (spermatogenesis), then MATURE and are stored in the epididymis before traveling through the vas deferens. Don't confuse production with storage.

FSH vs. LH in males

FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to support sperm production. LH stimulates interstitial (Leydig) cells to make testosterone. Both come from the anterior pituitary under hypothalamic GnRH.

Where does fertilization normally occur?

In the oviduct (Fallopian tube), not the ovary or uterus. The ovary RELEASES the egg; the uterus is where the resulting zygote later IMPLANTS and develops.

What triggers ovulation?

A sharp surge in LH (around day 14) directly triggers ovulation, releasing the secondary oocyte. That LH surge is itself caused by rising estrogen, so estrogen triggers indirectly, LH directly.

Corpus luteum and progesterone

After ovulation the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, secreting progesterone to MAINTAIN the endometrium. If no fertilization, it degenerates, progesterone drops, and menstruation follows.

hCG (and pregnancy tests)

Human chorionic gonadotropin, from the embryo/placenta, MAINTAINS the corpus luteum so progesterone keeps supporting early pregnancy. Its presence in urine is what home pregnancy tests detect.

Spermatogenesis vs. oogenesis (yield)

Spermatogenesis: one diploid cell to FOUR functional haploid sperm. Oogenesis: one functional egg PLUS polar bodies that disintegrate. The unequal split concentrates cytoplasm/nutrients in the single egg.

Cleavage stage of development

Rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote with NO overall growth, producing many smaller cells (forming the morula). Comes before gastrulation (germ layers) and implantation of the blastocyst.

Three germ layers and what they form

Ectoderm to nervous system + skin epidermis. Mesoderm to muscle, bone, blood/circulatory, kidneys. Endoderm to digestive and respiratory linings. Gastrulation creates these layers.

Placenta function

Exchanges nutrients, O2, CO2, and wastes between maternal and fetal blood WITHOUT the two bloodstreams mixing. It also secretes progesterone and estrogen to maintain pregnancy.

Acrosome of sperm

Enzyme-filled cap on the sperm head; releases enzymes that DIGEST through the egg's protective layers (e.g., zona pellucida) at fertilization. Energy comes from midpiece mitochondria, not the acrosome.

Mitosis vs. meiosis (key outcomes)

Mitosis: 2 identical diploid daughter cells (growth/repair). Meiosis: 4 genetically varied haploid gametes (chromosome number halved, e.g., 46 to 23 in humans). Fertilization restores the diploid number.

Anaphase (mitosis): what separates?

Sister chromatids split at the centromere and move to opposite poles as spindle fibres shorten, ensuring each daughter cell gets a complete, identical chromosome set.

Two sources of variation in meiosis

(1) Crossing over in prophase I (homologues swap segments). (2) Independent assortment in metaphase I (random orientation of homologous pairs). Both reshuffle alleles into unique gametes.

Nondisjunction to trisomy

Failure of chromosomes/chromatids to separate in meiosis produces gametes with extra or missing chromosomes. An extra chromosome 21 (trisomy) causes Down syndrome. Monosomy = one missing copy.

Monohybrid cross Aa x Aa ratios

Genotype ratio 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Phenotype ratio 3 dominant : 1 recessive (complete dominance). The 1:2:1 genotypes underlie the 3:1 phenotypes, a classic numerical-response setup.

Dihybrid cross RrYy x RrYy

Independent assortment gives a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. A dihybrid TESTCROSS (RrYy x rryy) instead gives 1:1:1:1. Recognizing which ratio appears tells you the parents' genotypes.

Incomplete dominance vs. codominance

Incomplete dominance: heterozygote is a BLEND (red x white to pink snapdragons). Codominance: BOTH alleles fully and separately expressed (I^A I^B to type AB blood). Blend vs. both-shown is the distinction.

Reading a pedigree: autosomal dominant clue

Appears in every generation, affects sexes equally, and affected children always have an affected parent. Autosomal RECESSIVE instead skips generations and can appear from two unaffected parents.

X-linked recessive inheritance

Sons get their single X from mom, so a carrier mother (X^H X^h) gives 50% of SONS the disorder (e.g., hemophilia, colour blindness). Affected males more common; trait can skip generations through carrier females.

Linked genes vs. independent assortment

Genes close together on the SAME chromosome are linked and tend to be inherited together, distorting expected ratios. Genes on different chromosomes (or far apart) assort independently.

DNA base pairing and semiconservative replication

A-T (2 H-bonds), C-G (3 H-bonds). Replication is semiconservative: each new double helix keeps ONE original strand as a template plus one new strand. Helicase unwinds; DNA polymerase builds.

Transcription vs. translation

Transcription (nucleus): DNA template to mRNA via RNA polymerase. Translation (ribosome): mRNA codons read by tRNA anticodons to assemble a polypeptide. A codon = 3 mRNA bases coding one amino acid.

Types of point mutation

Missense = base change gives a DIFFERENT amino acid (e.g., sickle cell). Silent = same amino acid despite the change. Frameshift = insertion/deletion shifts the whole reading frame, usually most damaging.

Genetic technology tools: restriction enzymes, ligase, gel electrophoresis

Restriction enzymes CUT DNA at specific recognition sequences; DNA ligase JOINS fragments. Gel electrophoresis separates fragments by SIZE (smaller fragments travel farther toward the + electrode).

Hardy-Weinberg equations and the 5 conditions

p + q = 1 (alleles); p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 (genotypes: dominant homozygote, heterozygote, recessive homozygote). Equilibrium needs: no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, very large population, no selection.

Exponential vs. logistic growth

Exponential = J-shaped curve, unlimited resources, maximum rate. Logistic = S-shaped curve that levels off at carrying capacity (K) as limiting factors slow growth. The curve shape tells you which model applies.

Genetic drift, founder effect, bottleneck

Genetic drift = random allele-frequency change, strongest in SMALL populations. Founder effect = small group starts a new population. Bottleneck = sudden crash shrinks an existing one. Both reduce diversity by chance.

Natural selection: how antibiotic resistance spreads

Resistance alleles already exist by random mutation. Antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria; resistant ones survive and reproduce, raising the resistance frequency. Bacteria do NOT mutate on demand, and the drug doesn't create the gene.

Primary vs. secondary succession

Primary succession starts where NO soil exists (bare rock); pioneer species like lichens build soil. Secondary succession starts where soil REMAINS (after fire or abandoned farmland), so it proceeds faster.

Allopatric speciation

A geographic barrier splits a population, blocks gene flow, and the isolated groups diverge into separate species. Contrast sympatric speciation, which occurs WITHOUT physical separation, within one area.

Biology 30 diploma exam: weighting and format

60 machine-scored questions (48 multiple-choice + 12 numerical-response, equal value). The diploma is worth 30% of the final course mark; the school-awarded mark is the other 70%.

Biology 30 diploma exam: timing, standards, calculator

Designed for 3 hours (up to 6 allowed), closed-book, English only. Acceptable standard 50%, standard of excellence 80%. An approved calculator is permitted, useful for Hardy-Weinberg and genetics numerical-response items.

Frequently Asked Questions

How much is the Biology 30 diploma exam worth?

The Alberta Biology 30 diploma exam is weighted at 30% of your final course mark, and your school-awarded mark makes up the other 70%. You need a combined final mark of at least 50% to pass the course.

How many questions are on the Biology 30 diploma exam and what format is used?

The diploma exam has 60 machine-scored questions of equal value: 48 multiple-choice and 12 numerical-response items. Numerical-response questions require you to calculate an answer and grid it in rather than select an option.

How long is the Biology 30 diploma exam?

The exam is designed to be completed in 3 hours, but Alberta Education allows students to take up to 6 hours if they need the extra time. It is a closed-book exam offered in English only.

Can I use a calculator on the Biology 30 diploma exam?

Yes. An approved calculator is permitted, which is useful for the numerical-response questions such as Hardy-Weinberg allele- and genotype-frequency calculations and genetic probability problems.

What units does the Biology 30 diploma exam cover?

It covers four units: Unit A Nervous and Endocrine Systems (about 25%), Unit B Reproduction and Development (about 20%), Unit C Cell Division, Genetics and Molecular Biology (about 40%, the heaviest), and Unit D Population and Community Dynamics (about 15%).

What is the acceptable standard on the Biology 30 diploma exam?

Alberta Education sets the acceptable standard at 50% and the standard of excellence at 80%. There is no separate pass mark on the diploma alone; your final course mark blends the 30% exam result with your 70% school-awarded mark.

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