Biology 30 Exam Flashcards

Q: How much is the Biology 30 diploma exam worth?

The Alberta Biology 30 diploma exam is weighted at 30% of your final course mark, and your school-awarded mark makes up the other 70%. You need a combined final mark of at least 50% to pass the course.

Q: How many questions are on the Biology 30 diploma exam and what format is used?

The diploma exam has 60 machine-scored questions of equal value: 48 multiple-choice and 12 numerical-response items. Numerical-response questions require you to calculate an answer and grid it in rather than select an option.

Q: How long is the Biology 30 diploma exam?

The exam is designed to be completed in 3 hours, but Alberta Education allows students to take up to 6 hours if they need the extra time. It is a closed-book exam offered in English only.

Q: Can I use a calculator on the Biology 30 diploma exam?

Yes. An approved calculator is permitted, which is useful for the numerical-response questions such as Hardy-Weinberg allele- and genotype-frequency calculations and genetic probability problems.

Q: What units does the Biology 30 diploma exam cover?

It covers four units: Unit A Nervous and Endocrine Systems (about 25%), Unit B Reproduction and Development (about 20%), Unit C Cell Division, Genetics and Molecular Biology (about 40%, the heaviest), and Unit D Population and Community Dynamics (about 15%).

Q: What is the acceptable standard on the Biology 30 diploma exam?

Alberta Education sets the acceptable standard at 50% and the standard of excellence at 80%. There is no separate pass mark on the diploma alone; your final course mark blends the 30% exam result with your 70% school-awarded mark.

Question 1

Resting membrane potential of a neuron

Accepted Answer

About -70 mV (inside negative relative to outside). Maintained by the sodium-potassium pump (3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in) plus selective K+ permeability. A polarized neuron is 'at rest' but ready to fire.

Question 2

Depolarization vs. repolarization (which ion moves?)

Accepted Answer

Depolarization = Na+ rushes IN through voltage-gated Na+ channels (rises toward +35 mV). Repolarization = K+ moves OUT, restoring negativity. Knowing which gate opens tells you which phase you're in.

Question 3

All-or-none principle

Accepted Answer

Once threshold (~-55 mV) is reached, an action potential fires fully at a fixed size; below threshold, nothing fires. Stimulus STRENGTH is coded by firing FREQUENCY, not by larger spikes.

Question 4

Saltatory conduction & nodes of Ranvier

Accepted Answer

Myelin insulates the axon; the action potential 'jumps' between gaps called nodes of Ranvier, where Na+ channels are concentrated. Result: much faster impulse conduction than in unmyelinated axons.

Question 5

Absolute refractory period (why it matters)

Accepted Answer

Brief interval after a spike when Na+ channels are inactivated, so no new action potential can fire regardless of stimulus. This forces one-way impulse travel and limits maximum firing rate.

Question 6

Reflex arc pathway

Accepted Answer

Receptor to sensory (afferent) neuron to interneuron in the spinal cord to motor (efferent) neuron to effector. The brain isn't required, which is why reflexes are fast and protective.

Question 7

Sympathetic vs. parasympathetic division

Accepted Answer

Sympathetic = 'fight-or-flight' (raises heart rate, dilates pupils, diverts blood to muscles). Parasympathetic = 'rest-and-digest' (the opposite). Both are autonomic and act antagonistically.

Question 8

Rods vs. cones

Accepted Answer

Cones detect colour and work in bright light (densest at the fovea). Rods are highly light-sensitive for dim-light and motion vision but give no colour. Dark adaptation shifts vision from cones to rods.

Question 9

Accommodation (eye)

Accepted Answer

Ciliary muscles change lens SHAPE to focus on near vs. far objects (lens rounds for near). Don't confuse with refraction (light bending) or dilation (pupil-size change by the iris).

Question 10

Brain regions: cerebellum vs. medulla oblongata

Accepted Answer

Cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, balance, and posture. Medulla oblongata (brainstem) controls involuntary vitals: heart rate, breathing, blood pressure. Damage to the medulla is often fatal.

Question 11

Endocrine vs. exocrine glands

Accepted Answer

Endocrine glands are DUCTLESS and secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream to reach distant target cells. Exocrine glands (sweat, salivary) release secretions through DUCTS to a surface or cavity.

Question 12

Steroid vs. protein/peptide hormones (mechanism)

Accepted Answer

Steroid hormones (e.g., estrogen) are lipid-soluble, pass through the membrane, and bind intracellular receptors, often altering gene transcription. Protein hormones (e.g., insulin) bind SURFACE receptors and act via second messengers.

Question 13

Insulin vs. glucagon

Accepted Answer

Insulin (beta cells) LOWERS blood glucose: promotes cell uptake and glycogen storage. Glucagon (alpha cells) RAISES blood glucose: triggers liver glycogen breakdown. Antagonistic pair from the pancreatic islets.

Question 14

Negative feedback (the core homeostatic mechanism)

Accepted Answer

A deviation triggers a response that REVERSES it back to a set point (e.g., high glucose to insulin to lower glucose). Contrast positive feedback, which AMPLIFIES a change (e.g., childbirth, LH surge).

Question 15

ADH and water balance

Accepted Answer

When dehydrated, ADH rises, making kidney collecting ducts more permeable so MORE water is reabsorbed into blood and less is lost in urine. This conserves body water and restores blood volume.

Question 16

Thyroxine + iodine + TSH feedback

Accepted Answer

Thyroxine (T4) sets metabolic rate and REQUIRES iodine; deficiency causes goitre. High thyroxine inhibits TSH (pituitary) and TRH (hypothalamus) by negative feedback to keep levels in range.

Question 17

Adrenaline vs. cortisol (stress hormones)

Accepted Answer

Adrenaline (epinephrine), from the adrenal MEDULLA, drives the rapid SHORT-term stress response (heart rate up, airways open). Cortisol, from the adrenal CORTEX, handles LONG-term stress and raises blood glucose.

Question 18

Where is sperm made vs. matured?

Accepted Answer

Sperm are PRODUCED in the seminiferous tubules of the testes (spermatogenesis), then MATURE and are stored in the epididymis before traveling through the vas deferens. Don't confuse production with storage.

Question 19

FSH vs. LH in males

Accepted Answer

FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to support sperm production. LH stimulates interstitial (Leydig) cells to make testosterone. Both come from the anterior pituitary under hypothalamic GnRH.

Question 20

Where does fertilization normally occur?

Accepted Answer

In the oviduct (Fallopian tube), not the ovary or uterus. The ovary RELEASES the egg; the uterus is where the resulting zygote later IMPLANTS and develops.

Question 21

What triggers ovulation?

Accepted Answer

A sharp surge in LH (around day 14) directly triggers ovulation, releasing the secondary oocyte. That LH surge is itself caused by rising estrogen, so estrogen triggers indirectly, LH directly.

Question 22

Corpus luteum and progesterone

Accepted Answer

After ovulation the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, secreting progesterone to MAINTAIN the endometrium. If no fertilization, it degenerates, progesterone drops, and menstruation follows.

Question 23

hCG (and pregnancy tests)

Accepted Answer

Human chorionic gonadotropin, from the embryo/placenta, MAINTAINS the corpus luteum so progesterone keeps supporting early pregnancy. Its presence in urine is what home pregnancy tests detect.

Question 24

Spermatogenesis vs. oogenesis (yield)

Accepted Answer

Spermatogenesis: one diploid cell to FOUR functional haploid sperm. Oogenesis: one functional egg PLUS polar bodies that disintegrate. The unequal split concentrates cytoplasm/nutrients in the single egg.

Question 25

Cleavage stage of development

Accepted Answer

Rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote with NO overall growth, producing many smaller cells (forming the morula). Comes before gastrulation (germ layers) and implantation of the blastocyst.

Question 26

Three germ layers and what they form

Accepted Answer

Ectoderm to nervous system + skin epidermis. Mesoderm to muscle, bone, blood/circulatory, kidneys. Endoderm to digestive and respiratory linings. Gastrulation creates these layers.

Question 27

Placenta function

Accepted Answer

Exchanges nutrients, O2, CO2, and wastes between maternal and fetal blood WITHOUT the two bloodstreams mixing. It also secretes progesterone and estrogen to maintain pregnancy.

Question 28

Acrosome of sperm

Accepted Answer

Enzyme-filled cap on the sperm head; releases enzymes that DIGEST through the egg's protective layers (e.g., zona pellucida) at fertilization. Energy comes from midpiece mitochondria, not the acrosome.

Question 29

Mitosis vs. meiosis (key outcomes)

Accepted Answer

Mitosis: 2 identical diploid daughter cells (growth/repair). Meiosis: 4 genetically varied haploid gametes (chromosome number halved, e.g., 46 to 23 in humans). Fertilization restores the diploid number.

Question 30

Anaphase (mitosis): what separates?

Accepted Answer

Sister chromatids split at the centromere and move to opposite poles as spindle fibres shorten, ensuring each daughter cell gets a complete, identical chromosome set.

Question 31

Two sources of variation in meiosis

Accepted Answer

(1) Crossing over in prophase I (homologues swap segments). (2) Independent assortment in metaphase I (random orientation of homologous pairs). Both reshuffle alleles into unique gametes.

Question 32

Nondisjunction to trisomy

Accepted Answer

Failure of chromosomes/chromatids to separate in meiosis produces gametes with extra or missing chromosomes. An extra chromosome 21 (trisomy) causes Down syndrome. Monosomy = one missing copy.

Question 33

Monohybrid cross Aa x Aa ratios

Accepted Answer

Genotype ratio 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Phenotype ratio 3 dominant : 1 recessive (complete dominance). The 1:2:1 genotypes underlie the 3:1 phenotypes, a classic numerical-response setup.

Question 34

Dihybrid cross RrYy x RrYy

Accepted Answer

Independent assortment gives a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. A dihybrid TESTCROSS (RrYy x rryy) instead gives 1:1:1:1. Recognizing which ratio appears tells you the parents' genotypes.

Question 35

Incomplete dominance vs. codominance

Accepted Answer

Incomplete dominance: heterozygote is a BLEND (red x white to pink snapdragons). Codominance: BOTH alleles fully and separately expressed (I^A I^B to type AB blood). Blend vs. both-shown is the distinction.

Question 36

Reading a pedigree: autosomal dominant clue

Accepted Answer

Appears in every generation, affects sexes equally, and affected children always have an affected parent. Autosomal RECESSIVE instead skips generations and can appear from two unaffected parents.

Question 37

X-linked recessive inheritance

Accepted Answer

Sons get their single X from mom, so a carrier mother (X^H X^h) gives 50% of SONS the disorder (e.g., hemophilia, colour blindness). Affected males more common; trait can skip generations through carrier females.

Question 38

Linked genes vs. independent assortment

Accepted Answer

Genes close together on the SAME chromosome are linked and tend to be inherited together, distorting expected ratios. Genes on different chromosomes (or far apart) assort independently.

Question 39

DNA base pairing and semiconservative replication

Accepted Answer

A-T (2 H-bonds), C-G (3 H-bonds). Replication is semiconservative: each new double helix keeps ONE original strand as a template plus one new strand. Helicase unwinds; DNA polymerase builds.

Question 40

Transcription vs. translation

Accepted Answer

Transcription (nucleus): DNA template to mRNA via RNA polymerase. Translation (ribosome): mRNA codons read by tRNA anticodons to assemble a polypeptide. A codon = 3 mRNA bases coding one amino acid.

Question 41

Types of point mutation

Accepted Answer

Missense = base change gives a DIFFERENT amino acid (e.g., sickle cell). Silent = same amino acid despite the change. Frameshift = insertion/deletion shifts the whole reading frame, usually most damaging.

Question 42

Genetic technology tools: restriction enzymes, ligase, gel electrophoresis

Accepted Answer

Restriction enzymes CUT DNA at specific recognition sequences; DNA ligase JOINS fragments. Gel electrophoresis separates fragments by SIZE (smaller fragments travel farther toward the + electrode).

Question 43

Hardy-Weinberg equations and the 5 conditions

Accepted Answer

p + q = 1 (alleles); p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 (genotypes: dominant homozygote, heterozygote, recessive homozygote). Equilibrium needs: no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, very large population, no selection.

Question 44

Exponential vs. logistic growth

Accepted Answer

Exponential = J-shaped curve, unlimited resources, maximum rate. Logistic = S-shaped curve that levels off at carrying capacity (K) as limiting factors slow growth. The curve shape tells you which model applies.

Question 45

Genetic drift, founder effect, bottleneck

Accepted Answer

Genetic drift = random allele-frequency change, strongest in SMALL populations. Founder effect = small group starts a new population. Bottleneck = sudden crash shrinks an existing one. Both reduce diversity by chance.

Question 46

Natural selection: how antibiotic resistance spreads

Accepted Answer

Resistance alleles already exist by random mutation. Antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria; resistant ones survive and reproduce, raising the resistance frequency. Bacteria do NOT mutate on demand, and the drug doesn't create the gene.

Question 47

Primary vs. secondary succession

Accepted Answer

Primary succession starts where NO soil exists (bare rock); pioneer species like lichens build soil. Secondary succession starts where soil REMAINS (after fire or abandoned farmland), so it proceeds faster.

Question 48

Allopatric speciation

Accepted Answer

A geographic barrier splits a population, blocks gene flow, and the isolated groups diverge into separate species. Contrast sympatric speciation, which occurs WITHOUT physical separation, within one area.

Question 49

Biology 30 diploma exam: weighting and format

Accepted Answer

60 machine-scored questions (48 multiple-choice + 12 numerical-response, equal value). The diploma is worth 30% of the final course mark; the school-awarded mark is the other 70%.

Question 50

Biology 30 diploma exam: timing, standards, calculator

Accepted Answer

Designed for 3 hours (up to 6 allowed), closed-book, English only. Acceptable standard 50%, standard of excellence 80%. An approved calculator is permitted, useful for Hardy-Weinberg and genetics numerical-response items.

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