DHA Nursing Exam Exam Flashcards

Q: How many questions are on the DHA nursing exam and how long is it?

The DHA Registered Nurse exam (RNT0312) has 150 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions with a 3-hour (180-minute) time limit, delivered as a Prometric computer-based test.

Q: What is the passing score for the DHA Registered Nurse exam?

The passing score is 50% (75 of 150 questions correct) for the Registered Nurse exam and 45% for the Assistant Nurse exam. Results are reported as Pass or Fail only, with no numerical score disclosed.

Q: What is the DHA nursing exam pass rate?

Dubai Health does not publish an official pass rate for the nursing exam. Third-party exam-prep providers commonly cite pass rates in the 50-70% range, but this figure is not confirmed by DHA.

Q: What happens if I fail the DHA nursing exam?

You must wait at least 45 days between attempts, and DHA allows a maximum of three total attempts within an eligibility cycle. If all three attempts are exhausted without passing, further attempts require special approval rather than a fixed waiting period.

Q: Do I need a job offer to take the DHA nursing exam?

No. You can complete DataFlow verification and take the Prometric exam without a Dubai employer to obtain a one-year Eligibility Letter. A job offer and employer sponsorship are only required afterward, to activate a full practicing license on the Sheryan system.

Q: What topics does the DHA nursing exam cover?

The official blueprint has four domains: Fundamentals (32%), Adult Nursing (33%), Maternal-Child Nursing (18%), and Unit Management & Leadership (17%). Pharmacology, mental health nursing and infection control are tested within these domains.

Question 1

Normal Adult Vital Sign Ranges

Accepted Answer

Temperature 36.5-37.5°C (97.7-99.5°F); pulse 60-100 bpm; respirations 12-20/min; blood pressure <120/80 mmHg; SpO2 95-100%. Deviations from these ranges guide the nurse's first assessment priorities.

Question 2

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Accepted Answer

Scores Eye opening (1-4), Verbal response (1-5), and Motor response (1-6); total range 3-15. A score of 8 or less indicates severe impairment and usually requires airway protection.

Question 3

Pain Assessment Scales

Accepted Answer

Numeric Rating Scale (0-10) for verbal adults; Wong-Baker FACES for children or patients with limited communication; FLACC (Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability) for nonverbal or preverbal patients. Pain is reassessed after every intervention.

Question 4

AVPU Scale

Accepted Answer

Rapid level-of-consciousness check: A-Alert, V-responds to Verbal stimuli, P-responds to Pain only, U-Unresponsive. Used for quick triage before a full Glasgow Coma Scale assessment.

Question 5

WHO 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene

Accepted Answer

1) Before touching a patient, 2) before a clean/aseptic procedure, 3) after body fluid exposure risk, 4) after touching a patient, 5) after touching the patient's surroundings. Alcohol-based handrub for 20-30 seconds; soap and water when hands are visibly soiled.

Question 6

Standard Precautions

Accepted Answer

Applied to ALL patients regardless of diagnosis: hand hygiene, PPE when contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated, safe injection practices, respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette, and safe handling of contaminated linen and equipment.

Question 7

Transmission-Based Precautions

Accepted Answer

Airborne (measles, varicella, TB): N95 respirator plus negative-pressure room. Droplet (influenza, meningitis, pertussis): surgical mask within about 1 meter. Contact (MRSA, C. difficile, scabies): gown and gloves with dedicated equipment.

Question 8

Needlestick Injury Protocol

Accepted Answer

Immediately wash the exposed area with soap and water (do not squeeze or suck the wound), then report to occupational health/infection control right away. Source and exposed person are tested per protocol, and post-exposure prophylaxis is considered promptly for bloodborne pathogen risk.

Question 9

Rights of Medication Administration

Accepted Answer

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation — plus right reason, right response, and the patient's right to refuse.

Question 10

High-Alert Medications

Accepted Answer

Medications with heightened risk of serious harm if given in error: insulin, opioids, anticoagulants (heparin/warfarin), concentrated electrolytes (potassium chloride is never given IV push undiluted), and chemotherapy agents. These require an independent double-check before administration.

Question 11

Insulin Types by Onset of Action

Accepted Answer

Rapid-acting (lispro/aspart): onset 10-15 min, peak 1-2 hr. Short-acting (regular): onset 30 min, peak 2-4 hr. Intermediate (NPH): onset 1-2 hr, peak 4-12 hr. Long-acting (glargine/detemir): onset 1-2 hr, minimal peak, lasts about 24 hr.

Question 12

Medication Error Reporting

Accepted Answer

Report every medication error immediately through the facility's incident/variance reporting system, regardless of harm caused. The purpose is quality improvement, not punishment; never reference the incident report in the patient's chart — document only the objective facts and care given.

Question 13

Fall Risk Prevention

Accepted Answer

Assess with a validated tool such as the Morse Fall Scale. Key interventions: bed in lowest position, call bell within reach, non-slip footwear, hourly rounding, and clear walkways. Falls are a leading preventable hospital safety event.

Question 14

Pressure Injury Staging

Accepted Answer

Stage 1: non-blanchable redness with intact skin. Stage 2: partial-thickness skin loss, shallow open ulcer. Stage 3: full-thickness loss with visible subcutaneous fat. Stage 4: full-thickness loss with exposed bone, muscle, or tendon. Reposition at-risk patients at least every 2 hours.

Question 15

Oxygen Delivery Devices

Accepted Answer

Nasal cannula: 1-6 L/min (about 24-44% FiO2). Simple face mask: 5-8 L/min (about 40-60%). Non-rebreather mask: 10-15 L/min (about 80-95%). Venturi mask: delivers a precise, fixed FiO2, useful for patients like those with COPD who need controlled oxygen.

Question 16

Basic Life Support (BLS) Ratios

Accepted Answer

Adult CPR: compression rate 100-120/min, compression depth 5-6 cm, compression-to-ventilation ratio 30:2 for a single rescuer. Allow full chest recoil, minimize interruptions, and reassess rhythm every 2 minutes.

Question 17

Normal Sinus Rhythm

Accepted Answer

Rate 60-100 bpm, regular rhythm, one P wave before every QRS complex, PR interval 0.12-0.20 sec, and QRS duration under 0.12 sec. This is the baseline normal cardiac rhythm on ECG.

Question 18

Acute Coronary Syndrome Warning Signs

Accepted Answer

Crushing substernal chest pain or pressure radiating to the jaw, arm, or back, with diaphoresis, dyspnea, and nausea. Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker, rising 4-6 hours after injury and peaking at 12-24 hours. Initial management follows aspirin, oxygen (if hypoxic), nitrates, and morphine per protocol.

Question 19

Heart Failure: Left-Sided vs Right-Sided

Accepted Answer

Left-sided: pulmonary symptoms — dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles, pink frothy sputum. Right-sided: systemic congestion — peripheral edema, jugular venous distension, hepatomegaly, weight gain. Memory aid: Left = Lungs, Right = Rest of the body.

Question 20

Asthma Management

Accepted Answer

Short-acting beta-agonists (for example, salbutamol) treat acute bronchospasm; inhaled corticosteroids provide long-term control. Peak expiratory flow monitors severity. A silent chest with minimal wheeze in a struggling patient signals impending respiratory failure — a medical emergency.

Question 21

ABG Interpretation (ROME Method)

Accepted Answer

Respiratory = Opposite (pH and PaCO2 move in opposite directions); Metabolic = Equal (pH and HCO3 move in the same direction). Normal ranges: pH 7.35-7.45, PaCO2 35-45 mmHg, HCO3 22-26 mEq/L.

Question 22

Signs of Respiratory Distress

Accepted Answer

Tachypnea, use of accessory muscles, nasal flaring, cyanosis, tripod positioning, and SpO2 below 90%. Requires immediate oxygen therapy and provider notification, with possible escalation to non-invasive or mechanical ventilation.

Question 23

Hypoglycemia Management

Accepted Answer

Blood glucose under 70 mg/dL. If the patient is conscious, give 15-20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate (juice, glucose tablets) and recheck in 15 minutes (the '15-15 rule'). If unconscious, give IV dextrose or IM glucagon — never give oral intake to an unconscious patient.

Question 24

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) Signs

Accepted Answer

Blood glucose typically above 250 mg/dL, ketonuria/ketonemia, metabolic acidosis (pH under 7.3, HCO3 under 18 mEq/L), Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath odor, polyuria, and polydipsia. Treatment starts with IV fluids, then an insulin infusion, with potassium replacement as levels normalize.

Question 25

Acute Kidney Injury Phases

Accepted Answer

Oliguric phase (urine output under 400 mL/day, risk of fluid overload and hyperkalemia), diuretic phase (large urine volumes, risk of dehydration and electrolyte loss), and recovery phase (renal function gradually improves).

Question 26

Hemodialysis AV Fistula Care

Accepted Answer

Never take a blood pressure, draw blood, or start an IV in the fistula arm. Palpate for a thrill and auscultate for a bruit every shift to confirm patency; the absence of either signals possible occlusion requiring immediate provider notification.

Question 27

Upper GI Bleed Warning Signs

Accepted Answer

Hematemesis (coffee-ground or bright red vomitus) and melena (black, tarry stool). Priorities: assess airway and hemodynamic stability, obtain large-bore IV access, type and crossmatch blood, and monitor closely for hypovolemic shock.

Question 28

Hepatic Encephalopathy

Accepted Answer

Caused by ammonia buildup in liver failure. Signs include confusion, asterixis (a flapping hand tremor), and eventually coma. Lactulose is given to trap ammonia in the gut and increase its excretion in stool, targeting 2-3 soft stools per day.

Question 29

Anticoagulant Antidotes

Accepted Answer

Heparin is reversed with protamine sulfate. Warfarin is reversed with vitamin K (phytonadione), plus fresh frozen plasma or prothrombin complex concentrate for urgent reversal. Monitor heparin with aPTT and warfarin with INR (therapeutic range typically 2-3).

Question 30

Opioid Overdose and Reversal

Accepted Answer

Signs: respiratory depression (respiratory rate under 12/min), pinpoint pupils, and decreased level of consciousness. Antidote: naloxone (Narcan), which may need repeat dosing since its effect is shorter than many opioids.

Question 31

Digoxin Therapeutic Range and Toxicity

Accepted Answer

Therapeutic level is 0.5-2 ng/mL. Toxicity signs include nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances (yellow-green halos), bradycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hold the dose and notify the provider if the apical pulse is under 60 bpm in an adult; hypokalemia increases toxicity risk.

Question 32

Suicide Risk Assessment

Accepted Answer

Ask directly: 'Are you thinking of harming or killing yourself?' Assess plan, means/access, and intent. Never leave a high-risk patient unsupervised; remove access to potential means and initiate the facility's safety protocol.

Question 33

Therapeutic Communication Techniques

Accepted Answer

Use open-ended questions, reflection, clarification, silence, and empathy. Avoid 'why' questions, false reassurance, giving unsolicited advice, and changing the subject — these block honest disclosure from the patient.

Question 34

Naegele's Rule (Estimated Due Date)

Accepted Answer

Subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period, then add 7 days (adding 1 year if needed). Estimates a 40-week gestation from a regular 28-day cycle.

Question 35

Preeclampsia

Accepted Answer

Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after 20 weeks' gestation with proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction. Warning signs: severe headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, edema. Severe range is 160/110 mmHg or higher. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclamptic seizures.

Question 36

Magnesium Sulfate Toxicity

Accepted Answer

Therapeutic level is 4-7 mEq/L. The earliest toxicity sign is loss of deep tendon reflexes, followed by respiratory depression (under 12/min) and cardiac arrest. Antidote: calcium gluconate, kept at the bedside whenever magnesium sulfate is infusing.

Question 37

Fetal Heart Rate Baseline and Decelerations

Accepted Answer

Normal baseline FHR is 110-160 bpm. Early decelerations mirror contractions (head compression, benign). Variable decelerations are abrupt (cord compression — reposition the mother). Late decelerations occur after the contraction peaks (uteroplacental insufficiency — reposition, give oxygen, notify the provider immediately).

Question 38

Postpartum Hemorrhage

Accepted Answer

Blood loss over 500 mL after vaginal delivery or over 1000 mL after cesarean. Uterine atony is the most common cause. First-line action is fundal massage; medications include oxytocin, with IV fluids or blood products for hemodynamic instability.

Question 39

Apgar Score

Accepted Answer

Assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth: Appearance (color), Pulse, Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), Respirations — each scored 0-2 for a total of 0-10. A score under 7 at 5 minutes requires continued intervention and reassessment.

Question 40

Normal Newborn Vital Signs

Accepted Answer

Heart rate 110-160 bpm (up to 180 briefly with crying), respirations 30-60/min, and axillary temperature 36.5-37.5°C. Newborns are obligate nose breathers, so nasal patency is a priority assessment.

Question 41

Exclusive Breastfeeding Recommendation

Accepted Answer

WHO and UNICEF recommend initiating breastfeeding within the first hour of life and exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months, continuing with complementary foods up to 2 years or beyond.

Question 42

Febrile Seizures in Children

Accepted Answer

Most common in children aged 6 months to 5 years, typically with a rapidly rising temperature above 38°C (100.4°F). Nursing priorities: protect from injury, do not restrain, position on the side, time the seizure, and manage the fever once it resolves.

Question 43

Informed Consent

Accepted Answer

The physician or provider is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse's role is to witness the patient's signature and confirm the patient appears to understand — not to explain the procedure itself.

Question 44

Patient Confidentiality

Accepted Answer

Patient health information may only be shared with those directly involved in care or with the patient's authorization, on a strict need-to-know basis. Breaches, such as discussing cases in public areas or unauthorized chart access, are grounds for disciplinary and legal action.

Question 45

Incident (Variance) Reporting

Accepted Answer

Completed for any unusual occurrence that could harm a patient, staff member, or visitor. Its purpose is quality improvement and system-level prevention, not punishment. The report itself is never referenced in the patient's medical record — chart only the objective facts.

Question 46

DHA Licensing Pathway

Accepted Answer

Nurses apply through the Sheryan portal, complete DataFlow primary source verification (PSV) of their credentials, pass the Prometric computer-based exam, and receive a one-year Eligibility Letter before final license issuance to practice in Dubai.

Question 47

UAE Federal Law No. 4 of 2016 (Medical Liability)

Accepted Answer

Governs medical liability and malpractice in the UAE, defining healthcare professionals' duties of care and the process for reviewing medical error complaints through licensing-authority medical liability committees.

Question 48

Wadeema's Law (UAE Federal Law No. 3 of 2016 on Child Rights)

Accepted Answer

Requires healthcare professionals, including nurses, to report suspected child abuse or neglect to the relevant authorities. Nurses practicing in the UAE are mandated reporters under this child protection law.

Question 49

Five Rights of Delegation

Accepted Answer

Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, right supervision. The delegating nurse retains accountability for the outcome even though responsibility for performing the task is transferred.

Question 50

Evidence-Based Practice Cycle

Accepted Answer

Ask a clinical question, acquire the best available evidence, appraise its quality, apply it to patient care, and assess outcomes. This cycle underpins continuous quality improvement in nursing units.

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