18.4 Healthcare Regulations & Standards: FDA, REMS, Bar Coding, DEA, CMS, EMTALA, The Joint Commission, NIOSH & USP

Key Takeaways

  • A REMS can require medication guides, certification of prescribers, pharmacies or settings, and patient monitoring; FDA removed the clozapine REMS and the autologous CAR-T REMS programs in 2025.

  • FDA's 2004 bar code rule requires a linear bar code containing the NDC on most prescription drug labels, which makes bar code medication administration possible.

  • Theft or significant loss of controlled substances must be reported to DEA within 1 business day of discovery, followed by DEA Form 106 within 45 days.

  • EMTALA requires a medical screening examination and stabilizing treatment or an appropriate transfer for anyone who comes to an ED, regardless of ability to pay.

  • Under USP <797>, administration of an immediate-use compounded sterile preparation must begin within 4 hours after preparation starts.

Last updated: October 2026

18.4 Healthcare Regulations & Standards: FDA, REMS, Bar Coding, DEA, CMS, EMTALA, The Joint Commission, NIOSH & USP

Note

Exam scope: 2025 outline subtopics 3A1 (Medication Safety, e.g., REMS, VAERS, bar codes, ISMP) and 3A3 (Healthcare Regulations and Standards, e.g., FDA, TJC, CMS, NIOSH, USP <800>). High-alert medications, automated dispensing cabinets, smart pumps, error reporting systems and hazardous drug engineering controls are covered in Section 14.1.

FDA Safety Tools

  • Boxed warnings: the strongest labeling warning for serious or life-threatening risks.
  • Drug Safety Communications: alerts about new safety findings, label changes or market actions, such as the 2025 withdrawal of andexanet alfa in the US (Section 10.1).
  • MedWatch: the voluntary reporting system for healthcare professionals and patients (Form 3500). Manufacturers must report adverse events they learn about (Form 3500A).
  • VAERS: the vaccine adverse event reporting system, run jointly by CDC and FDA. Vaccine providers must report certain events listed in the reportable events table.

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)

FDA requires a REMS when labeling alone cannot ensure that a drug's benefits outweigh a serious risk. A REMS may include:

  • A Medication Guide or communication plan
  • Elements to assure safe use (ETASU): certified prescribers, certified pharmacies or settings, dispensing only in certain healthcare settings, documented lab results, patient monitoring or a registry
  • An implementation system
REMS (examples)Key ED-relevant requirement
Extended-release buprenorphine injectionsGiven only by healthcare providers in certified settings, never handed to patients, because IV self-injection can be fatal
Esketamine nasal sprayGiven in certified settings with observation after each dose
Olanzapine pamoate long-acting injection3-hour observation for post-injection delirium/sedation syndrome
Complement C5 inhibitors (eculizumab, ravulizumab)Meningococcal vaccination and patient wallet cards; treat fever as possible meningococcemia
Transmucosal immediate-release fentanylOutpatient use restricted to opioid-tolerant patients
Isotretinoin (iPLEDGE), mifepristonePregnancy prevention, and certified prescribers and pharmacies

REMS programs removed in 2025: clozapine (FDA stopped expecting participation in February 2025 and eliminated the program in June 2025) and the autologous CAR-T cell therapies (June 2025). The underlying risks remain in the labeling.

ED implications: REMS-restricted products may not be stocked or orderable on short notice. Know how to obtain or substitute them, and never dispense a REMS-restricted product outside its rules.

Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA)

FDA's 2004 bar code rule requires a linear bar code containing the National Drug Code (NDC) on most prescription drug labels and on OTC drugs commonly used in hospitals. BCMA checks the patient's wristband against the drug's bar code and the active order at the bedside, confirming the right patient, drug, dose, route and time.

  • In a landmark before-and-after study (Poon, 2010), BCMA with an electronic administration record reduced non-timing administration errors by about 41% and potential adverse drug events by about half.
  • ED barriers: verbal orders during resuscitation, overrides, bedside-prepared syringes without bar codes, and patients without wristbands.
  • Common workarounds that defeat BCMA: scanning a copy of the wristband taped to a computer, or scanning one vial and giving another. Pharmacy should track scanning compliance, investigate workarounds as system problems, and supply bar-coded labels for ED-prepared products.

DEA and Controlled Substances in the ED

RequirementKey facts
Ordering Schedule II drugsDEA Form 222 (single-sheet format) or electronic ordering through CSOS
Theft or significant lossNotify the DEA field office within 1 business day of discovery, then file DEA Form 106 within 45 days
Destroying expired or unwanted stockUse a reverse distributor or DEA Form 41
Wasting part of a doseNot a Form 41 event. Document it with a witness under hospital policy and audit waste against administrations to detect diversion
Diversion surveillanceAnalyze automated dispensing cabinet data (outlier removals, frequent overrides, late waste), resolve discrepancies promptly and investigate patterns
Buprenorphine for opioid use disorderThe X-waiver was eliminated in December 2022; any practitioner with a Schedule III registration can prescribe. New and renewing registrants must complete 8 hours of substance use disorder training (MATE Act)
"Three-day rule" (21 CFR 1306.07(b))Practitioners without a narcotic treatment program registration may dispense up to a 3-day supply at one time of buprenorphine or methadone to relieve acute withdrawal while arranging treatment (DEA final rule, August 2023)

CMS Conditions of Participation and EMTALA

Hospitals must meet the Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoPs) to bill Medicare. Accreditation by The Joint Commission or another approved accreditor confers "deemed status."

  • 42 CFR 482.25 (Pharmaceutical services): pharmacy directed by a qualified pharmacist; drugs stored securely; expired drugs removed from use; drug administration errors, adverse reactions and incompatibilities reported; controlled-substance abuses and losses reported; drug information available to staff.
  • 42 CFR 482.23(c): drugs are given according to orders from authorized practitioners. Verbal orders are used rarely and authenticated promptly.
  • Standing orders (42 CFR 482.24): allowed when approved by the medical staff, nursing and pharmacy, based on evidence, and documented and authenticated in the record. Examples include anaphylaxis, hypoglycemia and triage protocols.

EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act, 1986)

EMTALA applies to Medicare-participating hospitals with emergency departments. Anyone who comes to the ED requesting care must receive:

  1. A medical screening examination to determine whether an emergency medical condition exists, regardless of insurance or ability to pay. Insurance questions must not delay screening or treatment.
  2. Stabilizing treatment, or an appropriate transfer: the receiving hospital accepts the patient, records go with the patient, transport is qualified, and the physician certifies that the benefits of transfer outweigh the risks.

For the pharmacist, needed emergency drugs cannot be withheld or delayed because of cost or coverage.

The Joint Commission: 2026 National Performance Goals

Under Accreditation 360 (effective January 1, 2026), the National Patient Safety Goals were replaced by 14 National Performance Goals. Goal 14 covers medication management:

StandardKey elements of performance
NPG.14.01.01 Pharmaceutical servicesWhen the pharmacy is not open 24/7, a qualified professional reviews orders and a pharmacist reviews them retrospectively. The hospital sets a policy for which automated dispensing cabinet overrides are reviewed and how often; reviewing 100% of overrides is not required
NPG.14.02.01 Selection and procurementStandardize and limit drug concentrations; communicate shortages and outages; follow written substitution protocols
NPG.14.03.01 Labeling in procedural settingsLabel every medication and solution on and off the sterile field unless it is immediately administered
NPG.14.04.01 AnticoagulationApproved protocols for reversal and bleeding management; perioperative plans; use oral unit-dose, prefilled syringe or premixed products when available
NPG.14.05.01 Medication informationCollect the home medication list (the hospital defines what to collect in the ED), reconcile discrepancies, and give patients written medication information at discharge
NPG.14.06.01 Antibiotic stewardshipA multidisciplinary committee; track use as days of therapy per 1,000 days present, or report to NHSN

Other goals relevant to ED pharmacy include Goal 1 (correct patient identification and communication of critical results), Goal 4 (assessment of health-related social needs, Section 18.3), Goal 6 (pain management and safe opioid prescribing, including prescriber and pharmacist access to the prescription drug monitoring program) and Goal 8 (reducing suicide risk). The Sentinel Event Policy still expects a comprehensive systematic analysis and action plan after a sentinel event (Section 14.1).

Under long-standing Joint Commission medication management standards, a pharmacist prospectively reviews medication orders. The exceptions are when a licensed practitioner controls ordering, preparation and administration, or when a delay would harm the patient in an urgent situation. These exceptions cover much of resuscitation care.

NIOSH, USP <800> and USP <797>

  • NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings (2024): reorganized into two tables. Table 1 lists drugs that carry manufacturer special handling information or meet the definition of a carcinogen; Table 2 lists other hazardous drugs. ED examples include methotrexate, misoprostol and several antiseizure and hormonal drugs.
  • USP <800> sets containment, PPE and handling requirements for hazardous drugs (Section 14.1). It is enforceable when adopted by a state or board of pharmacy. An assessment of risk allows alternative containment for some dosage forms that are not antineoplastic.
  • USP <797> (2023 revision) immediate-use compounded sterile preparations:
    • May be prepared outside a cleanroom using aseptic technique.
    • May involve no more than 3 different sterile products.
    • Administration must begin within 4 hours after preparation starts.
    • Must be labeled unless the person who prepared it administers it immediately.
    • Examples include bedside dilution of push-dose vasopressors and reconstitution of emergency antibiotics.
  • ISMP Safe Practice Guidelines for adult IV push medications: use commercially available ready-to-administer products when possible, do not dilute unless the label or a protocol requires it, never draw medication from a prefilled syringe into another syringe, and label every syringe that is not immediately administered.
Test Your Knowledge

During a monthly cabinet reconciliation, an ED pharmacist finds that 40 hydromorphone 2 mg/mL vials cannot be accounted for. Internal investigation suggests theft. What are the DEA reporting requirements?

A

File DEA Form 222 within 7 days to replace the missing inventory

B

Report only to the state board of pharmacy within 10 days

C

Notify the DEA field office within 1 business day, then file Form 106 within 45 days

D

File DEA Form 41 within 30 days; no immediate notice is needed

Test Your Knowledge

An uninsured man presents to a Medicare-participating hospital's ED with fever and hypotension. A registration clerk asks whether IV antibiotics can wait until a financial counselor confirms he can pay. What does EMTALA require?

A

Screening and stabilizing care regardless of ability to pay, without delay

B

Treatment may wait for a payment plan if the patient is offered transfer

C

Stabilizing care is required only for patients with Medicare or Medicaid

D

Only a triage assessment is required before insurance is verified

Test Your Knowledge

An ED nurse dilutes epinephrine at the bedside to make a push-dose syringe for a hypotensive patient, using two sterile products in an ED room. Under the 2023 USP <797> requirements for immediate-use compounded sterile preparations, what is the time limit?

A

Administration must be completed within 1 hour of preparation

B

Administration must begin within 4 hours after preparation starts

C

The syringe may be used for up to 24 hours if refrigerated

D

There is no time limit when the preparation contains epinephrine

Test Your Knowledge

A hospital is updating its automated dispensing cabinet policy to meet The Joint Commission's 2026 National Performance Goals. Which statement about override review is accurate?

A

Override review is optional and need not be documented

B

Overrides are prohibited in the ED under the 2026 goals

C

The hospital defines which override types are reviewed and how often

D

Every override must be reviewed by a pharmacist within 24 hours

Sections you finish are checked off in the contents.