100+ Free SANC Professional Nurse Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: SANC Professional Nurse Exam

60%

SANC Entrance Pass Mark

SANC Professional Examination Guidelines

5 Domains

Core Content Outline

SANC Nursing Blueprint (R.174 / R.425)

R437

Exam Fee per Paper

SANC Government Gazette GN R.170

Act 33/2005

Governing Nursing Law

South African Nursing Act

The SANC Professional Nurse Registration Examination validates readiness for independent professional nursing practice in South Africa under R.174 and R.425 qualifications. The blueprint covers 5 core areas: Med-Surg & Critical Care (30%), Clinical Pharmacology (20%), Maternal & Child Health (20%), Psychiatric & Community Health (15%), and Nursing Leadership, Ethics & Health Legislation (15%). Pass marks are set at 60% for professional entrance exams (50% per course subject under legacy R.425). Examination fees are governed by GN R.170 (R437 per paper) with an annual practicing fee of R870 (2026).

Sample SANC Professional Nurse Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your SANC Professional Nurse exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An adult male is brought to the emergency unit presenting with severe dyspnea, central cyanosis, and an SpO2 of 84% on room air. According to the South African Triage Scale (SATS), which triage color code should the nurse assign?

A.Green (Routine)

B.Yellow (Urgent)

C.Orange (Very Urgent)

D.Red (Emergency)

Explanation: Under the South African Triage Scale (SATS), a patient presenting with central cyanosis or severe respiratory distress with SpO2 < 90% is classified as Red (Emergency). Red category patients require immediate resuscitation and medical intervention without delay.

2A 24-year-old female with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Her blood glucose is 26.8 mmol/L and serum potassium is 4.8 mmol/L. Which prescription should the nurse execute FIRST?

A.Administer IV short-acting insulin bolus at 0.1 units/kg

B.Infuse 0.9% Normal Saline IV at 1000 mL in the first hour

C.Administer IV Potassium Chloride 40 mmol in 500 mL Dextrose 5%

D.Administer Sodium Bicarbonate IV bolus

Explanation: In DKA management, fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloid (0.9% Normal Saline) takes immediate priority to restore intravascular volume and renal perfusion before starting insulin. Starting insulin prior to rehydration worsens vascular collapse and hypokalemia.

3A 58-year-old man presents to a district hospital with crushing substernal chest pain of 2 hours duration. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) is unavailable within 120 minutes. What is the priority medical intervention?

A.Administer Sublingual Nitroglycerin every 5 minutes until pain resolves completely

B.Administer Tenecteplase or Streptokinase IV fibrinolytic therapy

C.Transfer immediately by road ambulance without administering antithrombotics

D.Administer IV Furosemide 80 mg and place patient in high Fowler's position

Explanation: When primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of STEMI presentation, fibrinolytic therapy (Tenecteplase or Streptokinase) is indicated within 30 minutes of arrival (door-to-needle time) provided no contraindications exist. Early reperfusion saves ischemic myocardium.

4A patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) secondary to severe pneumonia is mechanically ventilated. Which lung-protective ventilator setting is recommended to minimize ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI)?

A.High tidal volume of 10-12 mL/kg predicted body weight

B.Low tidal volume of 4-8 mL/kg predicted body weight with plateau pressure < 30 cmH2O

C.Zero Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) to avoid barotrauma

D.Permissive hyperoxia with FiO2 maintained at 100%

Explanation: Lung-protective ventilation strategies in ARDS prescribe low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg predicted body weight) and limiting plateau pressure to < 30 cmH2O. This prevents volutrauma, barotrauma, and biotrauma in injured, non-compliant lungs.

5A trauma patient following a motor vehicle accident develops severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation to the left, absent breath sounds on the right, and hypotension (BP 74/48 mmHg). What is the IMMEDIATE life-saving intervention?

A.Obtain an urgent chest X-ray to confirm pneumothorax

B.Perform immediate needle thoracostomy decompression in the right 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line

C.Administer IV Adrenaline 1 mg bolus

D.Perform endotracheal intubation and deliver high-pressure bag-valve-mask ventilation

Explanation: Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis requiring immediate needle chest decompression before diagnostic imaging. Inserting a large-bore cannula into the 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line (or 5th ICS anterior axillary line) relieves intrathoracic pressure and obstructive shock.

6A patient with septic shock remains hypotensive (BP 80/42 mmHg, MAP 55 mmHg) despite receiving 30 mL/kg of IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation. Which vasopressor is recommended as FIRST-LINE therapy to maintain a Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) >= 65 mmHg?

A.Dobutamine infusion

B.Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline) infusion

C.Dopamine low-dose infusion

D.Isoprenaline infusion

Explanation: Norepinephrine is the first-choice vasopressor in septic shock. It potentates alpha-1 vasoconstriction to restore vascular tone and MAP >= 65 mmHg while maintaining cardiac output with modest beta-1 stimulation.

7Using the Parkland Formula (4 mL x weight in kg x % TBSA burned), calculate the total IV fluid requirement in the first 24 hours for a 70 kg adult patient who sustained 30% total body surface area (TBSA) partial-thickness thermal burns.

A.4,200 mL

B.6,300 mL

C.8,400 mL

D.10,500 mL

Explanation: Parkland Formula: 4 mL x 70 kg x 30 = 8,400 mL of Ringer's Lactate over 24 hours. The first half (4,200 mL) is infused over the first 8 hours post-burn injury, and the remaining half (4,200 mL) over the next 16 hours.

8A patient 12 hours post-total thyroidectomy complains of tingling around the mouth and fingertips. Examination reveals a positive Chvostek's sign and carpopedal spasm upon blood pressure cuff inflation. Which medication must the nurse prepare for IMMEDIATE administration?

A.IV Potassium Chloride

B.IV Calcium Gluconate 10%

C.Oral Thyroxine 100 mcg

D.IV Magnesium Sulfate

Explanation: Accidental surgical excision or injury to the parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy causes acute hypocalcemia. Clinical signs include tetany, circumoral paresthesia, Chvostek's sign, and Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm). Immediate treatment is slow IV 10% Calcium Gluconate.

9A patient with a severe traumatic brain injury (TBI) has an intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor in situ. Which nursing positioning intervention optimizes venous drainage from the head and lowers ICP?

A.Trendelenburg position with head turned to the left

B.Supine position with knees flexed at 90 degrees

C.Head of bed elevated 30 degrees with neck in neutral alignment

D.Side-lying position with extreme neck flexion

Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees while keeping the neck in neutral alignment facilitates jugular venous outflow from the cranium, reducing ICP without compromising cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP).

10A 62-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset left-sided hemiparesis and facial droop that started 2 hours ago. A non-contrast CT head rules out intracranial hemorrhage. What is the window period for IV Alteplase (tPA) thrombolytic administration in acute ischemic stroke?

A.Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset

B.Within 12 hours of symptom onset

C.Within 24 hours of symptom onset

D.Within 48 hours of symptom onset

Explanation: Intravenous thrombolysis with Alteplase (tPA) for acute ischemic stroke must be initiated within 4.5 hours of well-established symptom onset in eligible patients after hemorrhage is excluded by non-contrast head CT.

About the SANC Professional Nurse Exam

The South African Nursing Council (SANC) Examination for Registration as a Professional Nurse evaluates candidate competence across clinical nursing science, maternal and child healthcare, pharmacology, mental health, and nursing legislation under Nursing Act 33 of 2005. This practice question bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation designed to help candidates prepare for SANC credentialing assessments.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours per paper

Passing Score

60% (Professional Entrance) / 50% (R.425 course mark)

Exam Fee

R437 per paper / R870 annual fee (South African Nursing Council (SANC))

SANC Professional Nurse Exam Content Outline

30%

Advanced Medical-Surgical & Critical Care Nursing

Adult medical-surgical disorders, acute care, SATS emergency triage, hemodynamic monitoring, and perioperative nursing.

20%

Clinical Pharmacology & Advanced Therapeutics

Prescribing safety under Act 101 of 1965, NDoH Standard Treatment Guidelines (STGs/EML), HIV ART (TLD), TB DOTS/MDR-TB, and dosage calculations.

20%

Maternal, Child & Reproductive Health

BANC Plus antenatal care, intrapartum labor management, emergency obstetric care, Choice on TOP Act 92 of 1996, EPI-SA immunization, and IMCI clinical algorithms.

15%

Psychiatric/Mental Health & Community Health Nursing

Mental Health Care Act 17 of 2002 (72-hour assessment, assisted/involuntary admissions), psychiatric therapeutics, PHC re-engineering, and communicable disease outbreak response.

15%

Nursing Leadership, Ethics, Health Legislation & Research

Nursing Act 33 of 2005, Scope of Practice (R.2598), SANC Code of Ethics, National Health Act 61 of 2003, patient rights charter, clinical governance, and evidence-based practice.

How to Pass the SANC Professional Nurse Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 60% (Professional Entrance) / 50% (R.425 course mark)
Exam length: 100 questions
Time limit: 3 hours per paper
Exam fee: R437 per paper / R870 annual fee

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

SANC Professional Nurse Study Tips from Top Performers

1Focus heavily on South African Department of Health Standard Treatment Guidelines (STGs/EML) for Primary Healthcare and Hospital Level

2Memorize statutory nursing boundaries under the SA Nursing Act 33 of 2005 and Scope of Practice Regulation R.2598

3Master emergency triage using the South African Triage Scale (SATS) color-coding and clinical priority scores

4Understand 72-hour assessment procedures and patient classification (Voluntary, Assisted, Involuntary) under Mental Health Care Act 17 of 2002

5Know the first-line HIV ART regimen (TLD) and National TB Management Guidelines including GeneXpert diagnostic protocols

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the SANC Professional Nurse Examination?

It is the official licensing/registration assessment conducted under the auspices of the South African Nursing Council (SANC) for graduates completing either the R.174 Bachelor of Nursing degree or legacy R.425 4-year Diploma/Degree in Nursing and Midwifery.

What is the passing score for the SANC exam?

For SANC Professional Entrance Examinations, the standard pass mark is 60%. Under legacy R.425 nursing education institution curricula, individual subject exam pass marks are typically set at 50%.

What are the key domain weightings for this practice bank?

The 100-question practice bank is structured according to official SANC outline weightings: Advanced Med-Surg & Critical Care (30%), Clinical Pharmacology & Therapeutics (20%), Maternal, Child & Reproductive Health (20%), Psychiatric & Community Health (15%), and Leadership, Ethics & Legislation (15%).

What legislation and clinical guidelines are tested in South Africa?

Key legislation includes the Nursing Act 33 of 2005, SANC Scope of Practice (R.2598), Mental Health Care Act 17 of 2002, Choice on Termination of Pregnancy Act 92 of 1996, National Health Act 61 of 2003, and Medicines and Related Substances Act 101 of 1965. Clinical guidelines follow NDoH STGs/EML, ART/TB guidelines, BANC Plus, and EPI-SA.

How much are the SANC examination and annual registration fees?

Under GN R.170 (as amended), examination fees are R437 per paper. Annual practice registration for a Professional Nurse in 2026 is R870. Fees are non-refundable and paid via accredited Nursing Education Institutions.

Is this practice bank an official SANC exam paper?

No. This practice question bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation created independently to assist nursing students preparing for SANC professional credentialing examinations.