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100+ Free SAMSA Chief Mate CoC Practice Questions

South African Maritime Safety Authority STCW Section A-II/2 Chief Mate Certificate of Competency practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: SAMSA Chief Mate CoC Exam

100

Practice Questions

MCQ Study Adaptation

STCW A-II/2

IMO Standard

SAMSA Code

60%

Written Pass Mark

SAMSA Examination Rules

30%

Stability Domain Weight

SAMSA Syllabus

12-18 mos

Required OOW Sea Service

STCW / SAMSA Regulations

5 years

CoC Validity Period

STCW Manila 2010

The SAMSA Chief Mate Certificate of Competency (STCW A-II/2) certification requires passing SAMSA written examinations in Navigation, Stability, Cargo, and Maritime Law, followed by an oral examination with a SAMSA examiner. Please note: our 100 MCQs are an English-language MCQ study adaptation designed to help candidates revise and self-assess core concepts for SAMSA written and oral examinations.

Sample SAMSA Chief Mate CoC Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your SAMSA Chief Mate CoC exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1According to IMO Resolution A.893(21), what are the four sequential stages required for comprehensive berth-to-berth passage planning?
A.Appraisal, Planning, Execution, and Monitoring
B.Assessment, Navigation, Steering, and Communication
C.Briefing, Departure, Transit, and Arrival
D.Plotting, Waypoint Setup, Watchkeeping, and Debriefing
Explanation: IMO Resolution A.893(21) specifies that passage planning consists of four key stages: Appraisal (gathering all relevant information), Planning (preparing the detailed voyage plan), Execution (executing the plan with appropriate briefings), and Monitoring (continuously monitoring vessel progress). Skimping on any stage compromises navigation safety and violates STCW standards. Chief Mates are responsible for supervising the berth-to-berth passage plan prepared by the navigation officer.
2In an ECDIS operating in Performance Standards mode, what does setting the 'Safety Contour' depth value dictate?
A.It specifies the maximum allowed vessel speed in narrow channels.
B.It determines the boundary between safe water and shallow water, automatically triggering isolated danger symbols and grounding alarms.
C.It sets the depth threshold where the echo sounder transducer switches off.
D.It defines the distance at which radar targets are acquired by ARPA.
Explanation: The Safety Contour on an ECDIS marks the boundary between safe navigable water and unsafe shallow water. If a vessel's route crosses the safety contour or if the vessel enters shallow water inside the safety contour threshold, ECDIS generates an audible and visual anti-grounding alarm. The Chief Mate must calculate the required safety contour based on maximum static draft, squat, tide, and safety margin.
3A vessel underway in restricted visibility observes an ARPA radar target with a constant bearing and decreasing range. What action is required under Rule 19 of COLREGs?
A.Maintain course and speed until the target is visually sighted.
B.Alter course to port immediately to pass behind the target.
C.Take early and substantial action to avoid a close-quarters situation, avoiding an alteration of course to port for a vessel forward of the beam (other than a vessel being overtaken).
D.Sound five short and rapid blasts on the whistle and maintain course.
Explanation: Rule 19(d) of COLREGs governs conduct of vessels in restricted visibility when risk of collision exists. An alteration of course to port for a vessel forward of the beam (except when overtaking) must be avoided because it often worsens the close-quarters situation. Early and substantial action by altering course to starboard or reducing speed is required.
4When navigating in shallow water, a vessel experiences squat. Which factors directly determine the magnitude of vessel squat?
A.Metacentric height (GM) and free surface effect.
B.Vessel length overall and rudder angle only.
C.Wind speed and sea state height.
D.Vessel speed over water (squared) and block coefficient (Cb), compounded by channel confinement.
Explanation: Squat is the reduction in under-keel clearance caused by hydrodynamic pressure drops under a moving hull. The magnitude of squat increases proportionally to the square of vessel speed (V^2) and is directly proportional to the block coefficient (Cb). In confined channels (canals or shallow fairways), squat can double compared to open shallow water.
5Which solar observation method provides the most accurate Position Line (PL) when calculating an ocean celestial navigation intercept?
A.Marcq St. Hilaire (Intercept) method using a calculated altitude and azimuth.
B.Ex-meridian sight taken 2 hours after solar noon.
C.Polaris latitude sight combined with a amplitude sight of the moon.
D.Direct sight of the sun's lower limb without correcting for dip or refraction.
Explanation: The Marcq St. Hilaire Intercept method compares the sextant observed altitude (Ho) with a calculated altitude (Hc) from an assumed position. The difference (Intercept = Ho - Hc) along the calculated azimuth yields a precise Position Line perpendicular to the azimuth line, suitable for plotting on a navigational chart.
6Under COLREGs Rule 10 (Traffic Separation Schemes), what rule applies to a vessel crossing a traffic lane in a TSS?
A.Crossing must be executed at a 45-degree angle to accelerate time spent in the lane.
B.Crossing must be executed on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow.
C.Crossing is strictly prohibited under all circumstances.
D.Crossing vessels always hold the right of way over vessels proceeding along the lane.
Explanation: Rule 10(c) requires crossing vessels to cross on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles (90 degrees) to the general direction of traffic flow. Heading at right angles minimizes the time spent in the lane and makes the vessel's intention clear to traffic proceeding along the lane, even if wind/current causes drift.
7What is the primary operational advantage of raster navigational charts (RNC) compared to electronic navigational charts (ENC)?
A.RNCs automatically eliminate paper chart corrections.
B.RNCs allow custom safety contour configuration and seamless layering.
C.RNCs are exact digital scans of paper charts, providing familiar visual layout, but lack intelligent vector feature querying and automatic safety alarms.
D.RNCs scale seamlessly without pixelation or clarity loss.
Explanation: Raster Navigational Charts (RNC) are direct digital raster image scans of official paper charts. While visually identical to paper charts, RNCs do not contain vector data layers, meaning ECDIS cannot query individual objects or trigger intelligent depth safety alarms automatically, unlike S-57/S-101 ENCs.
8During ocean passage planning, what information is derived from a Great Circle track compared to a Rhumb Line track?
A.The Great Circle track appears as a straight line on a standard Mercator projection chart.
B.The Great Circle track maintains a constant compass course throughout the voyage.
C.The Rhumb Line track is always shorter in distance than the Great Circle track.
D.The Great Circle track represents the shortest distance between two points on the globe, but course angle changes continuously.
Explanation: A Great Circle track represents the shortest distance between two terrestrial points on a sphere. However, because it crosses meridians at varying angles, the true heading changes continuously. A Rhumb Line crosses meridians at a constant angle (straight line on Mercator), but is longer than the Great Circle distance except along the equator or meridians.
9What is the recommended method for verifying ARPA target tracking integrity when operating in dense traffic?
A.Perform manual radar plotting or visual cross-checks to detect potential target swap or vector lag.
B.Rely entirely on automated trial maneuver functions.
C.Increase radar range to 96 nautical miles.
D.Switch ARPA to head-up relative motion permanently.
Explanation: ARPA algorithms can suffer from target swap (exchanging target vectors when two vessels pass in close proximity) or processing lag during target maneuvers. Watchkeepers must cross-check ARPA data against visual observations and manual radar plotting technique to verify vector accuracy.
10When entering South African waters, which IALA Buoyage System region applies and what are the lateral mark color conventions when entering port?
A.IALA Region B: Green port hand marks on port side, Red starboard hand marks on starboard side.
B.IALA Region A: Red port hand marks (red light/can topmark) on port side, Green starboard hand marks (green light/conical topmark) on starboard side.
C.IALA Region A: Green port hand marks on port side, Red starboard hand marks on starboard side.
D.IALA Region B: Red port hand marks on port side, Green starboard hand marks on starboard side.
Explanation: South Africa follows IALA Maritime Buoyage System Region A. When entering port from seaward (conventional direction of buoyage), port hand marks are RED (can-shaped) and kept to port, while starboard hand marks are GREEN (conical-shaped) and kept to starboard. Memory aid: 'Red Right Returning' applies only in Region B (Americas, Japan, Philippines, Korea).

About the SAMSA Chief Mate CoC Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for South African Maritime Safety Authority STCW Section A-II/2 Chief Mate Certificate of Competency is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.