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100+ Free SACAA ATPL Performance Practice Questions

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Sample SACAA ATPL Performance Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your SACAA ATPL Performance exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which of the following best defines Takeoff Decision Speed (V1) for a transport category aircraft under CS-25 / FAR-25?
A.The maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to stop the aircraft during an aborted takeoff, and the minimum speed at which takeoff can be continued following an engine failure.
B.The speed at which the pilot initiates rotation to achieve the target lift-off pitch attitude.
C.The minimum speed at which the aircraft can be controlled in the air with one engine inoperative and maximum 5 degrees bank.
D.The speed achieved at the 35-foot screen height with one engine inoperative.
Explanation: V1 is the takeoff decision speed. It is the maximum speed at which the pilot must initiate the first stopping action (applying brakes, reducing thrust, deploying spoilers) to stop within the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA), and the minimum speed following an engine failure at VEF to continue the takeoff within the Takeoff Distance Available (TODA).
2Under CS-25 performance regulations, what is the definition of VMCG (Minimum Control Speed Ground)?
A.The minimum flight speed at which directional control can be maintained using aerodynamic controls only after an engine failure in flight.
B.The minimum speed during the takeoff ground roll at which, following a critical engine failure, primary aerodynamic controls (rudder) alone can maintain directional control within 30 feet of centerline.
C.The speed at which nose-wheel steering must be disengaged during the takeoff roll.
D.The speed at which the aircraft transitions from ground roll to airborne flight.
Explanation: VMCG is the minimum control speed on the ground. When the critical engine fails during ground roll, VMCG allows directional control to be maintained using primary aerodynamic controls (rudder) alone (without nose-wheel steering), keeping the aircraft within 30 feet of the runway centerline.
3What is the mandatory regulatory constraint regarding the relationship between VMCG, VEF, V1, and VR for CS-25 aircraft?
A.VMCG <= VEF < V1 <= VR
B.V1 <= VMCG <= VEF <= VR
C.VR <= V1 <= VEF <= VMCG
D.VEF <= VMCG <= VR <= V1
Explanation: By regulatory definition under CS-25, VMCG must be less than or equal to VEF (engine failure speed), VEF must be less than V1, and V1 must not exceed VR (rotation speed). Therefore, the mandatory speed sequence is VMCG <= VEF < V1 <= VR.
4What is the required screen height at the end of the Takeoff Distance Required (TODR) for a CS-25 transport category aircraft on a dry runway?
A.35 feet
B.50 feet
C.15 feet
D.100 feet
Explanation: Under CS-25 / FAR-25 certification rules, the takeoff distance required on a dry runway is the distance to reach a screen height of 35 feet above the takeoff surface with one engine inoperative.
5When taking off from a wet runway under CS-25 regulations, what reduced screen height is permitted at the end of the TODR with an engine failure at VEF?
A.15 feet
B.35 feet
C.50 feet
D.0 feet (ground contact)
Explanation: CS-25 permits a reduced screen height of 15 feet at the end of TODR on a wet runway following an engine failure at VEF, recognizing reduced tire traction and allowing a lower V1 decision speed.
6Which declared distance represents the physical length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off?
A.TORA (Take-off Run Available)
B.TODA (Take-off Distance Available)
C.ASDA (Accelerate-Stop Distance Available)
D.LDA (Landing Distance Available)
Explanation: TORA (Take-off Run Available) is the length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.
7How is Take-off Distance Available (TODA) calculated from declared airport runway distances?
A.TODA = TORA + Clearway
B.TODA = TORA + Stopway
C.TODA = ASDA + Clearway
D.TODA = TORA + Stopway + Clearway
Explanation: Take-off Distance Available (TODA) is defined as the length of the Take-off Run Available (TORA) plus the length of any clearway available.
8Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA) is mathematically equal to:
A.TORA + Stopway
B.TORA + Clearway
C.TODA + Stopway
D.LDA + Clearway
Explanation: Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA) is the length of the take-off run available (TORA) plus the length of any stopway available.
9What is the maximum regulatory length of clearway that may be declared and credited for Take-off Distance Available (TODA)?
A.50% of TORA
B.25% of TORA
C.100% of Stopway
D.1,000 metres regardless of TORA
Explanation: Under ICAO Annex 14 and CS-25 certification rules, the maximum length of clearway that may be credited in calculating TODA cannot exceed 50% of the TORA.
10In transport category aircraft performance, what defines a 'Balanced Field Length' (BFL)?
A.A condition where Accelerate-Stop Distance Required (ASDR) equals Take-off Distance Required with One Engine Inoperative (TODR OEI).
B.A runway where TORA is exactly equal to LDA.
C.A situation where clearway length equals stopway length.
D.A takeoff performance calculation where normal all-engine takeoff distance equals landing distance.
Explanation: A Balanced Field Length occurs when V1 is chosen such that the Accelerate-Stop Distance Required (ASDR) equals the Take-off Distance Required with one engine inoperative (TODR OEI).

About the SACAA ATPL Performance Exam

The SACAA ATPL Performance examination evaluates advanced transport-category aircraft performance principles under CS-25 / FAR-25 and SA-CATS / CAR Part 91 & Part 121. Topics include runway declared distances (TORA, TODA, ASDA, LDA), V-speeds (VMCG, VMCA, VEF, V1, VR, V2, VREF), takeoff flight path segments (1st to 4th segment gross vs net gradients), obstacle clearance, en-route drift-down ceilings, and landing distance factoring for dry, wet, and contaminated runways.

Questions

35 scored questions

Time Limit

120 minutes

Passing Score

75%

Exam Fee

R450 per subject sitting under SACAA Part 187 user fees (South African Civil Aviation Authority (SACAA))

SACAA ATPL Performance Exam Content Outline

15%

General Principles & Regulations (CS-25 / FAR-25)

Transport category performance definitions, mass limits, pressure & density altitude, ISA deviations, and atmospheric effects.

25%

Takeoff Performance & Declared Distances

TORA, TODA, ASDA, stopway, clearway, balanced field length (BFL), V1, VR, V2, VMCG, VMCA, VEF, and runway slope/wind corrections.

20%

Takeoff Flight Path & Climb Segments

1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th takeoff segment gradient requirements, net vs gross flight path, obstacle clearance margins, and acceleration altitude.

15%

En-Route Performance & Drift-Down

One-engine-inoperative (OEI) and two-engine-inoperative en-route climb gradients, obstacle clearance, drift-down procedure, and ceiling calculations.

25%

Landing Performance & Factors

Landing distance available (LDA), landing distance required (LDR), dry, wet, and contaminated runway factors, VREF, and approach/go-around climb gradients.

How to Pass the SACAA ATPL Performance Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75%
  • Exam length: 35 questions
  • Time limit: 120 minutes
  • Exam fee: R450 per subject sitting under SACAA Part 187 user fees

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

SACAA ATPL Performance Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master V-speed definitions and ordering constraint: VMCG <= VEF <= V1 <= VR <= V2min <= V2.
2Understand declared distances and how clearway (max 50% of TORA) and stopway affect TODA and ASDA.
3Practice numerical calculations for net vs gross climb gradients (subtract 0.8% for 2-engine, 0.9% for 3-engine, 1.0% for 4-engine in takeoff segments).
4Memorize landing distance factors: 1.67 for dry turbojet destination, 1.43 for turboprop, and an additional 1.15 multiplier for wet runways.
5Be familiar with ISA atmospheric calculations, density altitude, headwind (50% credit) and tailwind (150% penalty) corrections.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the pass mark and time limit for the SACAA ATPL Performance exam?

The pass mark is 75% under CAR 61.01.10. Candidates have 120 minutes to complete 35 multiple-choice questions.

What is the difference between gross and net flight paths in transport aircraft performance?

The gross flight path represents actual expected aircraft performance. The net flight path is degraded by a mandatory regulatory safety margin (0.8% for 2-engine, 0.9% for 3-engine, 1.0% for 4-engine aircraft during takeoff; 1.1%, 1.4%, 1.6% en-route) to ensure positive obstacle clearance.

How are landing distances factored for commercial operations under CATS/CAR Part 121?

For destination landing in a turbojet on a dry runway, the unfactored landing distance must not exceed 60% of LDA (multiplying by 1.67). On a wet runway, this dry LDR is multiplied by an additional factor of 1.15 (115%).

What are the climb gradient requirements for the 2nd segment takeoff?

Under CS-25, the 2nd segment gross climb gradient with one engine inoperative, gear retracted, and takeoff flap set at V2 must be at least 2.4% for twin-engine aircraft, 2.7% for three-engine aircraft, and 3.0% for four-engine aircraft.

What happens during an en-route engine failure drift-down?

When an engine fails at high cruise altitude, the aircraft cannot maintain altitude above its OEI ceiling and must drift down at recommended speeds (VMRA/VXSE) to a lower stabilizing ceiling. The net drift-down flight path must clear all terrain along the route by required safety margins.