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100+ Free LPC Attorneys Admission Exam Practice Questions

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GCB National Bar Examination (Advocates)

Practice Questions
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: LPC Attorneys Admission Exam Exam

4 papers

Written Papers (100 marks each)

Legal Practice Council CBE syllabus 2026

15 min

Reading Time Per Paper

Legal Practice Council CBE syllabus 2026

2 sittings

2026 Exam Dates (March & August)

Legal Practice Council 2026

2027

New Five-Paper Format Begins

Legal Practice Council

LLB

Required Degree (candidate legal practitioner)

Legal Practice Act 28 of 2014

100+

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OpenExamPrep question bank

The LPC Competency-Based Examination for Candidate Attorneys is the South African attorneys' board exam, administered by the Legal Practice Council (LPC) under the Legal Practice Act 28 of 2014. The current syllabus has four written papers of 100 marks each, with 15 minutes of reading time per paper: Court Practice & Procedures (~3h), Wills & Estates (~2.5h), Attorneys' Practice & Legal Ethics (~3h), and Attorneys' Bookkeeping. The papers cover High Court and Magistrates' Court procedure, criminal procedure, Road Accident Fund claims, wills and the administration of estates, legal ethics under the LPC Code of Conduct, and attorneys' trust accounting and the Fidelity Fund. The exam is written twice a year - the 2026 sittings fall around 4-5 March and 18-19 August 2026 - and a new five-paper format begins in March 2027. The LPC does not publish a fixed pass mark or pass rate, and exam fees are set by the Council rather than stated in the syllabus. To sit the exam you must hold an LLB and be registered as a candidate legal practitioner serving practical vocational training; LSSA LEAD provides preparation.

Sample LPC Attorneys Admission Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your LPC Attorneys Admission Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An attorney must institute a civil claim for R350 000 arising from a breach of contract. In which court does the matter fall, assuming default monetary jurisdiction applies?
A.The District Magistrates' Court, which has jurisdiction up to R400 000
B.The High Court only, because all contract claims above R200 000 must be heard there
C.The Regional Magistrates' Court, which has civil jurisdiction above R200 000 up to R400 000
D.The Small Claims Court, because the parties consented to it
Explanation: Under the Magistrates' Courts Act 32 of 1944 and the determinations made under it, the Regional Court has civil monetary jurisdiction for claims above R200 000 up to R400 000, while the District Court is limited to R200 000. A R350 000 claim therefore falls within the Regional Court's jurisdiction.
2In High Court litigation under the Uniform Rules of Court, which process is used to commence an action where there is a genuine dispute of fact that requires the hearing of oral evidence?
A.A notice of motion supported by affidavit
B.An ex parte application
C.A petition to the Judge President
D.A combined summons with particulars of claim
Explanation: Under Uniform Rule 17, action proceedings commenced by combined summons (with particulars of claim) are the correct procedure where a real and bona fide dispute of fact exists, because they allow pleadings, discovery and the leading of oral evidence at trial. Motion proceedings are reserved for matters that can be decided on affidavit.
3A defendant in a High Court action wishes to raise a point of law that, even if all the facts pleaded by the plaintiff are accepted, the particulars of claim disclose no cause of action. Which procedural step is appropriate?
A.A special plea of prescription
B.An exception to the particulars of claim
C.An application for summary judgment
D.A notice in terms of Rule 35 (discovery)
Explanation: Under Uniform Rule 23, an exception is taken where a pleading is vague and embarrassing or lacks averments necessary to sustain a cause of action or defence, accepting the pleaded facts as true. It is the correct way to attack particulars of claim that disclose no cause of action.
4Under Uniform Rule 32, a plaintiff may apply for summary judgment. By when must the application be delivered after the defendant has delivered a plea?
A.Within 15 days after the date of delivery of the plea
B.Within 5 days after delivery of the notice of intention to defend
C.Within 10 days after close of pleadings
D.At any time before the trial date is allocated
Explanation: Following the 2019 amendment to Uniform Rule 32, summary judgment is applied for only after the defendant has delivered a plea, and the application must be delivered within 15 days after the date of delivery of the plea. This requires the plaintiff to engage with the defence raised.
5An accused is charged with premeditated murder, a Schedule 6 offence. What must the accused establish to be released on bail?
A.That bail will be in the interests of the State
B.That the accused has no previous convictions
C.That exceptional circumstances exist which in the interests of justice permit release
D.That the prosecution cannot prove a prima facie case
Explanation: Section 60(11)(a) of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 provides that for a Schedule 6 offence the court shall detain the accused unless he adduces evidence satisfying the court that exceptional circumstances exist which in the interests of justice permit release. This reverses the normal onus onto the accused.
6In the Magistrates' Court, a defendant who has been served with a summons fails to enter an appearance to defend within the dies induciae. What may the plaintiff do?
A.Apply for summary judgment immediately
B.Set the matter down for trial
C.Refer the matter to arbitration
D.Apply to the clerk or court for default judgment
Explanation: Under the Magistrates' Courts Rules, where a defendant fails to deliver a notice of intention to defend within the time stated in the summons, the plaintiff may apply for default judgment, granted by the clerk of the court (for liquidated claims) or by the court. No trial is required where the defendant is in default.
7A claimant was injured as a passenger when the insured vehicle in which she travelled collided with another. Against whom must she lodge her claim for compensation for bodily injury?
A.Against the negligent driver personally in delict
B.Against the registered owner's private insurer
C.Against the Road Accident Fund (RAF)
D.Against the Minister of Transport
Explanation: Under the Road Accident Fund Act 56 of 1996, a person who suffers bodily injury caused by or arising from the driving of a motor vehicle claims compensation from the Road Accident Fund, which assumes liability in place of the wrongdoer. The common-law claim against the driver is generally extinguished to the extent the RAF is liable.
8Under the Road Accident Fund Act 56 of 1996, what is the general period within which a claim arising from a motor vehicle accident (where the identity of the driver or owner is known) must be lodged with the Fund, failing which it prescribes?
A.Within 90 days of the accident
B.Within 2 years from the date the cause of action arose
C.Within 3 years from the date the cause of action arose
D.Within 6 months of the accident
Explanation: Where the identity of the driver or owner of the vehicle is established, a RAF claim prescribes 3 years after the date upon which the cause of action arose, unless summons has been served. For hit-and-run (unidentified) claims, a shorter 2-year period applies and a prescribed notice requirement.
9During a High Court trial, the plaintiff's attorney wishes to compel the defendant to make available all relevant documents in the defendant's possession. Which Uniform Rule governs this?
A.Rule 35 (discovery, inspection and production of documents)
B.Rule 30 (irregular proceedings)
C.Rule 28 (amendment of pleadings)
D.Rule 43 (interim relief in matrimonial matters)
Explanation: Uniform Rule 35 governs discovery, inspection and production of documents, allowing a party to require the other to make discovery on oath of all documents relating to the matters in question. It is the central pre-trial mechanism for obtaining documentary evidence.
10An accused appears in the Magistrates' Court and the charge sheet alleges theft. Before the accused pleads, the prosecutor realises an essential element is omitted from the charge. What is the correct course?
A.The charge may be amended in terms of section 86 of the Criminal Procedure Act if no prejudice results
B.The accused must be acquitted immediately
C.The matter must be struck off the roll permanently
D.The accused must plead guilty before any amendment is allowed
Explanation: Section 86 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 permits the court to order an amendment of the charge where it is defective, provided the amendment will not prejudice the accused in his defence. The court has a wide discretion to allow amendment to cure defects before or during the trial.

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