100+ Free FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Practice Questions

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Sample FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 45-year-old male presents with progressive head pain, ataxia, and papilloedema. Brain MRI demonstrates a cystic mass in the right cerebellar hemisphere with a strongly enhancing peripheral mural nodule. The cystic fluid is iso-to-hyperintense to CSF on T1-weighted images. MRI spectroscopy shows elevated lipid/lactate peak and decreased N-acetylaspartate (NAA). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Hemangioblastoma

B.Pilocytic astrocytoma

C.Medulloblastoma

D.Brain abscess

Explanation: Hemangioblastoma classically presents in adults as a cerebellar cystic mass with a hyperenhancing mural nodule that abuts the pial surface. Prominent flow voids are frequently identified within or surrounding the mural nodule, reflecting its high vascularity.

2A 52-year-old female presents with progressive right-sided sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus. Contrast-enhanced temporal bone MRI reveals a ice-cream cone shaped mass centered at the internal auditory canal (IAC) extending into the cerebellopontine angle (CPA) forming acute angles with the petrous bone. What is the most characteristic imaging feature of this mass?

A.Internal auditory canal enlargement with intense enhancement

B.Dural tail sign forming obtuse angles with petrous temporal bone

C.Restricted diffusion on DWI/ADC sequences

D.Extensive erosion of the jugular foramen

Explanation: Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma) typically originates within the internal auditory canal, causing IAC widening and extension into the CPA with acute margin angles ('ice-cream cone' appearance). Intense homogenous enhancement is characteristic.

3A 34-year-old female presents with relapsing-remitting neurological deficits. Brain MRI demonstrates multiple oval hyperintense T2/FLAIR lesions in the periventricular white matter oriented perpendicular to the lateral ventricles. What is the classic radiologic name for this specific lesion distribution?

A.Dawson fingers

B.Virchow-Robin spaces

C.Marchiafava-Bignami lesions

D.Lhermitte-Duclos stripes

Explanation: Dawson fingers refer to demyelinating plaques centered around medullary venules perpendicular to the lateral ventricles in multiple sclerosis. Corpus callosum undersurface involvement is another highly specific location.

4A 68-year-old male presenting with sudden onset left hemiparesis undergoes hyperacute stroke Non-Contrast CT (NCCT). Which early ischemic change score system evaluates 10 anatomical regions supplied by the middle cerebral artery?

A.ASPECTS

B.NIHSS

C.mRS

D.mTIMI

Explanation: ASPECTS (Alberta Stroke Program Early CT Score) evaluates 10 middle cerebral artery regions (M1-M6, insular ribbon, caudate, lentiform, internal capsule) on NCCT, subtracting 1 point per ischemic region from 10.

5A 60-year-old male presenting with severe headaches has a CT head showing subarachnoid hemorrhage centered in the suprasellar and basal cisterns. CT angiography demonstrates a saccular aneurysm at the junction of the internal carotid artery and posterior communicating artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is most associated with this location?

A.Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

B.Abducens nerve (CN VI)

C.Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

D.Facial nerve (CN VII)

Explanation: PCoA (posterior communicating artery) aneurysms frequently compress the adjacent oculomotor nerve (CN III), causing ipsilateral ptosis, a fixed dilated pupil, and 'down-and-out' eye deviation.

6A 28-year-old male involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision arrives comatose. Initial CT brain shows small petechial hemorrhages in the corpus callosum splenium and dorsolateral brainstem, out of proportion to severe clinical deficits. What is the diagnosis?

A.Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

B.Subdural hematoma

C.Epidural hematoma

D.Cerebral contusion

Explanation: Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) occurs due to severe rotational acceleration-deceleration forces. Gradient echo (GRE) / SWI MRI sensitively detects microhemorrhages in the lobar grey-white junction (Grade I), corpus callosum (Grade II), and dorsolateral brainstem (Grade III).

7A 40-year-old female presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea. Sellar MRI reveals a 7 mm well-circumscribed hypointense lesion on T1-weighted images within the anterior pituitary lobe that enhances less than adjacent pituitary stroma after gadolinium. What is the diagnosis?

A.Pituitary microadenoma

B.Craniopharyngioma

C.Rathke cleft cyst

D.Pituitary macroadenoma

Explanation: Pituitary microadenoma measures <10 mm in diameter. On dynamic contrast-enhanced MRI, microadenomas exhibit delayed wash-in relative to normal enhancing pituitary parenchyma, appearing hypointense.

8A 10-year-old boy presents with progressive headache, vomiting, and visual loss. CT head reveals a suprasellar mass with lobulated cystic areas, nodular peripheral calcifications, and solid enhancing components. What is the diagnosis?

A.Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma

B.Germinoma

C.Optic pathway glioma

D.Pituitary adenoma

Explanation: Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma classically affects children and features the triad of cystic spaces ('machinery oil'), dense nodular calcifications (90%), and solid component enhancement.

9On neck CT, a cystic lesion located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle at the angle of the mandible, lateral to the carotid sheath, is identified in a 22-year-old female. What is the diagnosis?

A.Second branchial cleft cyst

B.Thyroglossal duct cyst

C.Dermoid cyst

D.Cervical lymphangioma

Explanation: Second branchial cleft cysts account for ~95% of branchial anomalies, typically located anteromedial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, lateral to the carotid space, and posterior to the submandibular gland.

10A 55-year-old male with a history of alcohol overuse presents with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Brain MRI demonstrates symmetrical hyperintensity on T2/FLAIR images in the mamillary bodies, periaqueductal grey matter, and medial thalami. What is the diagnosis?

A.Wernicke encephalopathy

B.Extrapontine myelinolysis

C.Herpes simplex encephalitis

D.Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Explanation: Wernicke encephalopathy secondary to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency exhibits characteristic symmetric T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the mamillary bodies, tectal plate, periaqueductal grey, and medial thalamic nuclei.

About the FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Exam

The Fellowship of the College of Radiologists of South Africa - Diagnostic Part II — FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II is the final exit qualification for specialist diagnostic radiologist registration in South Africa. It evaluates expert-level diagnostic image interpretation, differential diagnosis, imaging protocols, radiation safety, and interventional radiology across all major organ systems.

Assessment

Written examination papers (MCQ/MEQ), Rapid Reporting examination, Film Viewing / OSCE stations, and Oral Examination testing fellowship-level diagnostic radiology clinical competence.

Time Limit

Multi-day written and clinical examination

Passing Score

Overall 50% with written/reporting subminimums

Exam Fee

R24 650 (Colleges of Medicine of South Africa (CMSA), College of Radiologists)

FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Exam Content Outline

20%

Neuroradiology & Head & Neck Radiology

Brain neoplasms, cerebral ischemia, demyelinating disease, neurotrauma, skull base, temporal bone, orbits, neck, and spine pathology.

15%

Thoracic & Cardiovascular Radiology

HRCT ILD, lung cancer staging, pulmonary embolism, aortic dissection, cardiac CT/MRI, and occupational/TB lung disease.

20%

Abdominal & Gastrointestinal Radiology

Liver, biliary, pancreatic, splenic, and luminal GI imaging, acute abdomen, IBD, GI neoplasms, and rectal MRI.

15%

Genitourinary & Pelvic Radiology

Renal masses, stone disease, prostate PI-RADS v2.1, bladder carcinoma, adrenal lesions, and gynaecological O-RADS MRI/US.

10%

Musculoskeletal Radiology

Bone/soft tissue tumours, joint derangements, inflammatory arthritides, metabolic bone disease, osteomyelitis, and MSK trauma.

10%

Paediatric Radiology

Neonatal chest/abdomen, intussusception, volvulus, neuro-oncology, NAI, and skeletal dysplasias.

10%

Breast Imaging & Interventional Radiology

Mammography, breast US/MRI, BI-RADS criteria, EVAR, TIPS, embolization, stroke thrombectomy, and non-vascular interventional procedures.

How to Pass the FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Overall 50% with written/reporting subminimums
Assessment: Written examination papers (MCQ/MEQ), Rapid Reporting examination, Film Viewing / OSCE stations, and Oral Examination testing fellowship-level diagnostic radiology clinical competence.
Time limit: Multi-day written and clinical examination
Exam fee: R24 650

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master rapid reporting plain radiograph interpretation under strict time pressure to consistently achieve above the subminimum threshold.

2Review high-resolution CT (HRCT) patterns of diffuse parenchymal lung disease, particularly silicosis and post-tuberculosis fibrocavitary changes relevant to South Africa.

3Familiarize yourself with standardized reporting systems including PI-RADS v2.1, LI-RADS, BI-RADS 5th edition, and O-RADS.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the CMSA FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II examination?

The FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II consists of written papers (MCQ and short answer/MEQ), a Rapid Reporting examination (plain film emergency radiograph interpretation), a Film Viewing / OSCE station exam, and an Oral Viva examination conducted by senior CMSA examiners.

What is the passing requirement for the FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II?

Candidates must achieve an overall aggregate mark of at least 50%, alongside meeting specific subminimum requirements across the written papers, rapid reporting, and oral clinical components.

What is the examination fee for the FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II?

The examination fee for FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II is R21 500 as listed on the official CMSA portal.

100+ Free FC Rad Diag(SA) Part II Practice Questions

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