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100+ Free FC Derm(SA) Part I Practice Questions
Fellowship of the College of Dermatologists of South Africa — Part I (Basic Cutaneous Sciences) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.
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Key Facts: FC Derm(SA) Part I Exam
R15 500
Exam Fee
CMSA
50%
Passing Score (with subminimum)
CMSA Regulations
100
Practice MCQs in Bank
OpenExamPrep
verified
Metadata Status
CMSA Regulations
FC Derm(SA) Part I tests basic cutaneous sciences for prospective South African dermatologists. Pass mark is overall 50% with written subminimum. Exam fee is R15 500. This practice bank provides 100 high-yield MCQs covering cutaneous anatomy, physiology, dermatopathology, immunology, pharmacology, microbiology, and genetics.
Sample FC Derm(SA) Part I Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your FC Derm(SA) Part I exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1Which cell-cell junctional glycoprotein is primarily targeted by autoantibodies in pemphigus vulgaris?
A.Desmoglein 1
B.Desmoglein 3
C.BP180 (Collagen XVII)
D.Integrin alpha-6 beta-4
Explanation: Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by IgG autoantibodies directed against Desmoglein 3 (and in mucosal-cutaneous cases, Desmoglein 1). Desmoglein 3 is a transmembrane cadherin glycoprotein essential for cell-cell adhesion in the basal and suprabasal layers of stratified squamous epithelium, leading to suprabasal acantholysis.
2What is the primary structural collagen constituent of anchoring fibrils in the dermo-epidermal junction?
A.Type I collagen
B.Type IV collagen
C.Type VII collagen
D.Type XVII collagen
Explanation: Type VII collagen forms the anchoring fibrils that originate in the lamina densa and loop down into the upper papillary dermis, securing the basement membrane zone to the underlying dermal matrix. Mutations or autoantibodies against type VII collagen lead to dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa and epidermolysis bullosa acquisita, respectively.
3From which embryonic germ layer tissue do epidermal melanocytes originate during embryogenesis?
A.Somatic mesoderm
B.Neural crest
C.Endoderm
D.Surface ectoderm
Explanation: Melanocytes originate from neural crest cells during early embryogenesis. These melanoblasts migrate dorsolaterally through the mesenchyme to colonize the basal layer of the epidermis, hair follicles, and mucosa.
4Which specific ultrastructural organelle is pathognomonic for epidermal Langerhans cells on electron microscopy?
A.Weibel-Palade bodies
B.Birbeck granules
C.Odland bodies (lamellar bodies)
D.Keratohyalin granules
Explanation: Birbeck granules are rod- or tennis-racket-shaped cytoplasmic membrane-bound organelles specific to Langerhans cells. They contain Langerin (CD207) and function in the endosomal receptor-mediated antigen uptake pathway.
5Which immunohistochemical staining pattern is classic for Merkel cell carcinoma and helps differentiate it from metastatic small cell lung carcinoma?
A.Perinuclear dot-like positivity for Cytokeratin 20 (CK20)
B.Diffuse cytoplasmic positivity for Cytokeratin 7 (CK7)
C.Nuclear positivity for Thyroid Transcription Factor-1 (TTF-1)
D.Membranous positivity for CD45 (LCA)
Explanation: Merkel cell carcinoma exhibits a characteristic perinuclear dot-like pattern on immunostaining for Cytokeratin 20 (CK20). It is typically negative for TTF-1 and CK7, which helps distinguish it from metastatic small cell lung carcinoma (which is usually TTF-1 positive and CK20 negative).
6What is the mode of secretion utilized by human eccrine sweat glands?
A.Holocrine secretion
B.Apocrine secretion
C.Merocrine (eccrine) exocytosis
D.Paracrine diffusion
Explanation: Eccrine sweat glands secrete sweat via merocrine exocytosis, where secretory vesicles fuse with the apical plasma membrane to release contents without loss of cellular cytoplasm or cell membrane destruction.
7Which cellular mechanism characterizes holocrine secretion in cutaneous sebaceous glands?
A.Exocytosis of secretory granules into a central lumen
B.Pinch-off loss of apical cell membrane and cytoplasm
C.Disintegration of the entire lipid-laden sebocyte
D.Active transport across basolateral canaliculi
Explanation: Sebaceous glands release lipid sebum through holocrine secretion, in which peripheral sebocytes synthesize lipids, undergo programmed apoptosis, and completely disintegrate to become the secretory product itself.
8Where is the primary niche of multipotent epithelial stem cells located within the hair follicle?
A.Dermal papilla
B.Hair matrix
C.Follicular bulge region
D.Inner root sheath
Explanation: The follicular bulge region, situated at the site of insertion of the arrector pili muscle in the outer root sheath, houses multipotent epithelial stem cells that drive hair follicle regeneration during the anagen phase and contribute to epidermal re-epithelialization during wound healing.
9Which vascular plexus supplies capillary loops that project directly into the dermal papillae?
A.Deep vascular plexus
B.Subcutaneous venous plexus
C.Superficial (subpapillary) vascular plexus
D.Fascial arterial plexus
Explanation: The superficial (subpapillary) vascular plexus lies at the junction of the papillary and reticular dermis. It gives off ascending terminal arterioles that form ascending capillary loops extending into each dermal papilla to nourish the avascular epidermis.
10Which mechanoreceptor located in dermal papillae of glabrous skin mediates perception of low-frequency vibration and tactile flutter?
A.Pacinian corpuscle
B.Meissner corpuscle
C.Ruffini ending
D.Merkel disc
Explanation: Meissner corpuscles are rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors localized within dermal papillae of glabrous skin (fingertips, palms, soles). They detect low-frequency vibration (30-50 Hz) and light touch or tactile flutter.
About the FC Derm(SA) Part I Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Fellowship of the College of Dermatologists of South Africa — Part I (Basic Cutaneous Sciences) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.