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100+ Free FCPHM(SA) Part I Practice Questions

Fellowship of the College of Public Health Medicine of South Africa Part I practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: FCPHM(SA) Part I Exam

100 Qs

Practice Questions

OpenExamPrep Bank

3 hours

Time Limit

CMSA Examination Regulations

R15 500

Exam Fee

CMSA Fee Schedule

50%

Passing Score

CMSA Senate Policy

CMSA

Exam Body

College of Public Health Medicine of SA

The FCPHM(SA) Part I is a comprehensive 3-hour examination assessing core quantitative methods, health systems policy, epidemiology, and environmental health for medical specialists in public health in South Africa.

Sample FCPHM(SA) Part I Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FCPHM(SA) Part I exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In a municipal district of 200,000 residents, 500 existing cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are being treated on 1 January. During the calendar year, 100 new cases are diagnosed. What is the cumulative incidence of pulmonary tuberculosis in this population for that year?
A.50 per 100,000 population at risk (0.05%)
B.250 per 100,000 population at risk (0.25%)
C.300 per 100,000 population at risk (0.30%)
D.600 per 100,000 population at risk (0.60%)
Explanation: Cumulative incidence measures the proportion of initially disease-free individuals who develop the disease over a specified period. The population at risk at the start of the year is 200,000 minus 500 existing cases = 199,500. Calculating 100 / 199,500 yields approximately 50.1 per 100,000 (or 50 per 100,000 population at risk). Existing cases are excluded from the denominator.
2Under steady-state conditions in a population where incidence rate and disease duration remain constant, which mathematical formula best describes the relationship between prevalence (P), incidence rate (I), and average disease duration (D)?
A.P = I / D
B.P = I × D
C.P = I + D
D.P = 1 - (I × D)
Explanation: When incidence rate and duration of disease are stable over time and prevalence is low (<10%), point prevalence is approximately equal to the product of incidence rate and average disease duration (P = I × D). This fundamental relationship demonstrates that increases in treatment survival (extending duration) increase prevalence even if incidence remains unchanged.
3During a acute cholera outbreak in a rural district in Limpopo, 400 symptomatic cases are identified and treated at a local cholera treatment center. Among these cases, 8 deaths are recorded. What is the case fatality rate (CFR) for cholera in this outbreak?
A.0.5%
B.1.0%
C.2.0%
D.4.0%
Explanation: Case fatality rate (CFR) is the proportion of persons diagnosed with a specific disease who die from that disease within a given timeframe. CFR = (Number of deaths from disease / Total diagnosed cases of disease) × 100 = (8 / 400) × 100 = 2.0%. A CFR below 1% is the target standard for managed cholera outbreaks according to WHO/NICD guidelines.
4Which public health intervention represents an example of primary prevention?
A.Mammography screening for early stage breast cancer in asymptomatic women
B.Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) monitoring to prevent diabetic nephropathy
C.Routine Pap smear screening for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
D.Administration of the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine to newborns
Explanation: Primary prevention aims to prevent the initial onset of disease by reducing exposure to hazards or enhancing individual resistance before disease pathology develops. Immunization via BCG vaccination at birth is a classic primary prevention intervention against severe childhood tuberculosis.
5In evaluating a diagnostic screening test for disease X, 100 true positive cases and 20 false negative cases are identified. What is the sensitivity of this screening test?
A.83.3%
B.80.0%
C.75.0%
D.16.7%
Explanation: Sensitivity is the proportion of truly diseased individuals who test positive: TP / (TP + FN). Here, TP = 100 and FN = 20, so Sensitivity = 100 / (100 + 20) = 100 / 120 = 83.3%.
6A novel rapid antigen test for malaria is evaluated in a non-endemic clinic setting. Among 300 individuals confirmed to be disease-free by PCR, 270 test negative on the rapid antigen test and 30 test positive. What is the specificity of the rapid antigen test?
A.10.0%
B.90.0%
C.85.0%
D.95.0%
Explanation: Specificity is the proportion of non-diseased individuals who receive a negative test result: TN / (TN + FP). Here, TN = 270 and FP = 30, giving Specificity = 270 / (270 + 30) = 270 / 300 = 90.0%.
7When a screening test with fixed sensitivity (90%) and specificity (95%) is applied to a population where the prevalence of the condition decreases from 10% to 1%, how does the Positive Predictive Value (PPV) change?
A.PPV increases markedly
B.PPV remains unchanged
C.PPV decreases markedly
D.PPV becomes equal to 100%
Explanation: Positive Predictive Value (PPV) depends heavily on disease prevalence. As prevalence decreases, the absolute number of true positive cases falls while false positives (generated from the large pool of non-diseased people) relative to true positives increase. Consequently, PPV decreases markedly as disease prevalence declines.
8According to National Institute for Communicable Diseases (NICD) guidelines under the National Health Act in South Africa, which of the following condition categories mandates notification within 24 hours of clinical diagnosis (Category 1 Notifiable Medical Condition)?
A.Pulmonary Tuberculosis
B.Hepatitis B infection
C.Congenital Syphilis
D.Viral Haemorrhagic Fever (e.g. Ebola, Marburg, Crimean-Congo)
Explanation: Category 1 Notifiable Medical Conditions (NMC) in South Africa are conditions of major public health concern that must be reported within 24 hours of identification to enable immediate outbreak response. Viral Haemorrhagic Fevers, cholera, rabies, plague, and acute flaccid paralysis are Category 1 NMCs.
9What is the key distinguishing characteristic of a passive disease surveillance system compared to an active surveillance system?
A.Health facilities spontaneously send routine case reports to health authorities without active prompts
B.Epidemiologists routinely contact healthcare providers and visit clinics to actively search for unreported cases
C.Surveillance relies exclusively on molecular laboratory diagnostic sequencing for every suspected case
D.Data collection is restricted to private sector tertiary hospital intensive care units
Explanation: Passive surveillance relies on healthcare providers and laboratories routinely submitting reportable disease notifications to public health authorities without specific solicitation or active follow-up visits. It is lower cost but subject to underreporting.
10An epidemic curve plotting acute gastroenteritis cases following a community wedding feast displays a sharp upward spike in cases reaching a single prominent peak within 36 hours, followed by a rapid decline. All cases attended the feast. What pattern of exposure does this epidemic curve represent?
A.Continuous common source outbreak
B.Point source common vehicle outbreak
C.Propagated person-to-person outbreak
D.Intermittent common source outbreak
Explanation: A point source outbreak occurs when individuals are exposed to a single, common vehicle of infection simultaneously over a brief duration (e.g. contaminated dish at a wedding feast). The epidemic curve shows a single rapid rise, a single peak matching one incubation period, and a steep decline.

About the FCPHM(SA) Part I Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Fellowship of the College of Public Health Medicine of South Africa Part I is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.