Free Practice Questions for FC Path(SA) Microbiol

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Key Facts: FC Path(SA) Microbiol Exam

100 Qs

Practice Bank MCQs

OpenExamPrep Practice Adaptation

Overall 50%

Passing Score

CMSA College of Pathologists Regulations

R21 500

Exam Fee

CMSA 2026 Fee Schedule

EUCAST / CLSI

AST Standards

NHLS / Academic Path Syllabus

CMSA

Exam Body

Colleges of Medicine of South Africa

The FC Path(SA) Medical Microbiology examination is the specialist qualification awarded by the CMSA College of Pathologists. This 100-question practice bank offers comprehensive MCQ preparation across all core syllabus domains including AMR, IPC, molecular diagnostics, and clinical mycology/parasitology.

Sample FC Path(SA) Microbiol Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the FC Path(SA) Microbiol exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A blood culture from a neutropenic patient yields Gram-negative bacilli that are oxidase-positive, obligate aerobes, and produce a greenish pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar. Which organism is the most likely pathogen?

A.Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B.Escherichia coli

C.Klebsiella pneumoniae

D.Acinetobacter baumannii

Explanation: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an oxidase-positive, obligate aerobic Gram-negative bacillus known for producing pyocyanin and pyoverdine pigments that impart a green colour on culture media. It is a major opportunistic pathogen in neutropenic patients. Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae are oxidase-negative Enterobacterales, while Acinetobacter baumannii is oxidase-negative.

2Which mechanism is responsible for methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

A.Plasmid-mediated production of TEM-1 beta-lactamase

B.Acquisition of the mecA gene encoding penicillin-binding protein 2a (PBP2a)

C.Efflux pump overexpression driven by NorA mutations

D.Ribosomal target methylation mediated by ermA

Explanation: Methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus is mediated by the mecA or mecC gene carried on the staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec (SCCmec). This gene encodes penicillin-binding protein 2a (PBP2a), which has a low affinity for almost all beta-lactam antibiotics. TEM-1 beta-lactamase causes ampicillin resistance in Gram-negatives, NorA confers fluoroquinolone efflux, and ermA confers macrolide-lincosamide-streptogramin B (MLSB) resistance.

3A HIV-positive patient with a CD4 count of 35 cells/uL presents with subacute meningitis. India ink examination of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reveals round budding yeasts with clear halos. What is the most appropriate definitive diagnostic antigen test?

A.Serum and CSF galactomannan assay

B.CSF beta-D-glucan assay

C.CSF cryptococcal antigen lateral flow assay (LFA)

D.Serum Histoplasma antigen enzyme immunoassay

Explanation: Cryptococcus neoformans/gattii is the classic cause of fungal meningitis in severely immunocompromised patients, characterized by encapsulated yeasts visible on India ink preparation. The cryptococcal antigen lateral flow assay (LFA) performed on CSF or serum is highly sensitive and specific for definitive rapid diagnosis. Galactomannan tests for Aspergillus, beta-D-glucan is non-specific for invasive fungal infections but negative in Cryptococcus, and Histoplasma antigen tests for histoplasmosis.

4A febrile patient returning from Kruger National Park presents with rigors, splenomegaly, and anemia. Giemsa-stained thin blood film demonstrates intraerythrocytic ring forms and banana-shaped gametocytes. Which parasite is identified?

A.Plasmodium vivax

B.Plasmodium ovale

C.Plasmodium malariae

D.Plasmodium falciparum

Explanation: Crescentic or banana-shaped gametocytes are pathognomonic for Plasmodium falciparum, the predominant cause of severe malaria in South Africa. Plasmodium vivax, ovale, and malariae produce round or oval gametocytes. Early identification of P. falciparum is critical due to its potential for rapid progression to severe microvascular complication.

5According to the World Health Organization (WHO), what is the single most effective intervention to prevent healthcare-associated transmission of multi-drug resistant pathogens?

A.Hand hygiene compliance at key clinical moments

B.Daily ultraviolet irradiation of all patient rooms

C.Routine administration of oral decontaminating antibiotics

D.Continuous laminar airflow ventilation in general wards

Explanation: Hand hygiene performed at the WHO '5 Moments' is universally recognized as the single most effective, evidence-based measure to interrupt pathogen transmission in healthcare settings. Environmental disinfection and UV light are adjunctive, while routine oral antibiotic decontamination promotes resistance and laminar airflow is restricted to specialized surgical operating theatres.

6Which diagnostic assay relies on reverse transcription followed by real-time quantitative PCR to quantify viral load in HIV-1 infected patients?

A.Western blot assay

B.RT-qPCR targeting conserved regions of the gag or pol gene

C.Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for p24 antigen

D.Line probe assay for reverse transcriptase mutations

Explanation: Quantitative RT-qPCR targeting highly conserved regions such as the gag or pol gene is the gold standard for measuring HIV-1 RNA viral load in clinical plasma samples. Western blot and ELISA are antibody/antigen detection assays used primarily for diagnosis, while line probe assays are used for qualitative resistance genotyping.

7A sputum sample from a patient with chronic cough yields acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl-Neelsen staining. Which automated molecular diagnostic system is recommended by WHO as the initial diagnostic test for pulmonary tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance in South Africa?

A.QuantiFERON-TB Gold Plus assay

B.BACTEC MGIT 960 liquid culture

C.GeneXpert MTB/RIF Ultra assay

D.Line probe assay (GenoType MTBDRsl)

Explanation: GeneXpert MTB/RIF Ultra is the cartridge-based real-time PCR assay recommended by WHO and the South African National Department of Health as the primary diagnostic test for pulmonary TB and simultaneous detection of rpoB mutations conferring rifampicin resistance. QuantiFERON tests for latent infection, MGIT is liquid culture, and MTBDRsl is used for second-line drug resistance testing.

8Which organism is a catalase-negative, alpha-hemolytic, optochin-sensitive Gram-positive diplococcus that is bile soluble?

A.Streptococcus pyogenes

B.Enterococcus faecalis

C.Streptococcus agalactiae

D.Streptococcus pneumoniae

Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is classically identified by alpha-hemolysis on blood agar, sensitivity to optochin (ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride), and solubility in bile salts (sodium desoxycholate). Streptococcus pyogenes and agalactiae are beta-hemolytic, while Enterococcus faecalis is optochin-resistant and bile-esculin positive.

9In EUCAST susceptibility testing, what does the susceptibility category 'I' signify?

A.Susceptible, Increased exposure

B.Intermediate, implying uncertain clinical efficacy

C.Inhibited by standard dosing regimens

D.Inconsistent phenotypic expression

Explanation: Under EUCAST definitions updated since 2019, 'I' stands for 'Susceptible, Increased exposure'. It indicates that there is a high probability of therapeutic success if exposure to the agent is increased by adjusting the dosage regimen or concentration at the infection site. It replaces the old ambiguous term 'Intermediate'.

10A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 12 weeks gestation presents with acute fever, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis. Monospot test is negative. Serology reveals CMV IgM positive and low IgG avidity. What does low IgG avidity indicate?

A.Reactivation of a latent infection acquired years ago

B.Primary CMV infection acquired recently (within the last 3-4 months)

C.Cross-reactivity with Epstein-Barr virus antibodies

D.High neutralizing capacity preventing congenital transmission

Explanation: Low IgG avidity indicates weak binding affinity characteristic of antibodies produced during primary infection acquired within the preceding 3 to 4 months. High IgG avidity rules out recent primary infection, confirming past immunity or distant acquisition. This distinction is critical in pregnancy to assess congenital transmission risk.

About the FC Path(SA) Microbiol Exam

The Fellowship of the College of Pathologists of South Africa in Medical Microbiology [FC Path(SA) Microbiol] is the specialist credentialing examination for medical microbiologists in South Africa. The examination tests expert knowledge and practical diagnostic competence across bacteriology, virology, mycology, parasitology, antimicrobial stewardship, infection prevention and control (IPC), molecular diagnostics, laboratory safety (BSL-2/3), and ISO 15189 laboratory management.

Exam sponsor: Colleges of Medicine of South Africa (CMSA), College of Pathologists. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Written papers (Paper 1 case scenarios and basic microbiology, Paper 2 clinical bacteriology, virology, mycology, parasitology, IPC, and lab management), followed by a 2-day practical laboratory exam and oral examination.

Time Limit

Written papers (2 x 3 hours), Practical laboratory exam (2 days), Oral examination (30–45 minutes)

Passing Score

Overall 50% with written/practical subminimums

Exam / Certification Fees

R24 650

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: ~60–70%. Determined by the CMSA Board of Examiners for each examination diet. This describes exam candidates, not OpenExamPrep users or results from using our resources. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

30%

Bacteriology & Antimicrobial Resistance

Phenotypic and molecular identification of Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fastidious bacteria; resistance mechanisms (ESBL, AmpC, carbapenemases like NDM, OXA-48, KPC, VRE, MRSA); EUCAST/CLSI standards.

25%

Virology & Molecular Diagnostics

Diagnostic virology (HIV, HBV/HCV, CMV, EBV, respiratory viruses, viral hemorrhagic fevers); real-time PCR, viral load, multiplex syndromic panels, WGS, and lab quality assurance.

15%

Diagnostic Mycology & Parasitology

Yeast and mould morphotyping (Candida, Cryptococcus, Aspergillus, Mucorales, Histoplasma, Emergomyces); intestinal and systemic parasites (Plasmodium, Leishmania, Strongyloides, Echinococcus); serology and microscopy.

15%

Infection Prevention & Control (IPC) & Outbreak Management

HAI surveillance (CLABSI, CAUTI, SSI, VAP); transmission-based precautions; outbreak investigation and genomic epidemiology; sterilization/disinfection; environmental monitoring.

15%

Antimicrobial Stewardship & Laboratory Quality Management

Diagnostic stewardship; selective susceptibility reporting; ISO 15189 quality standards; IQC/EQA validation; biosafety BSL-2/3 compliance and hazardous waste management.

Preparing for the FC Path(SA) Microbiol Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Overall 50% with written/practical subminimums
Assessment: Written papers (Paper 1 case scenarios and basic microbiology, Paper 2 clinical bacteriology, virology, mycology, parasitology, IPC, and lab management), followed by a 2-day practical laboratory exam and oral examination.
Time limit: Written papers (2 x 3 hours), Practical laboratory exam (2 days), Oral examination (30–45 minutes)
Exam / certification fees: R24 650 Official sources

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FC Path(SA) Microbiol: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master EUCAST breakpoint criteria and expert rules for detecting complex beta-lactamase mechanisms (ESBL, AmpC, carbapenemases).

2Review NICD guidelines for surveillance of viral hemorrhagic fevers, measles, rabies, diphtheria, and epidemic malaria in South Africa.

3Understand line probe assays (e.g., GenoType MTBDRplus), GeneXpert MTB/RIF Ultra (trace calls, rpoB resistance), and WGS cluster analysis for IPC outbreaks.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the official CMSA FC Path(SA) Medical Microbiology examination?

The examination comprises two 3-hour written papers (combining SAQs and MCQs/case scenarios), followed by a 2-day practical laboratory examination testing diagnostic skills, and a final oral examination with external examiners.

How is the pass mark determined for the FC Path(SA) Microbiology exam?

The overall passing score is 50%, but candidates must also achieve subminimum pass marks in both the written and practical components to pass the examination.

What standard testing guidelines are referenced in the South African microbiology syllabus?

South African academic diagnostic laboratories predominantly follow EUCAST (European Committee on Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing) clinical breakpoints and expert rules, alongside SA National Department of Health and NICD guidelines.

What is the examination fee for the CMSA FC Path(SA) Medical Microbiology exam?

The examination fee is R21 500 as specified on the CMSA website.

Free Practice Questions for FC Path(SA) Microbiol

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