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100+ Free FC Orth(SA) Final Practice Questions

Fellowship of the College of Orthopaedic Surgeons of South Africa Final Examination: FC Orth(SA) Final practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: FC Orth(SA) Final Exam

100 Qs

MCQ Study Adaptation

OpenExamPrep Practice Bank

R21 500

Exam Fee

CMSA Fee Structure 2026

50%

Passing Score

CMSA College of Orthopaedic Surgeons Regulations

verified

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CMSA Official Blueprint

The CMSA FC Orth(SA) Final is the specialist exit examination for orthopaedic surgeons in South Africa. This practice bank provides 100 high-yield, clinically sophisticated MCQs tailored to the official South African orthopaedic fellowship syllabus.

Sample FC Orth(SA) Final Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FC Orth(SA) Final exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old male motor vehicle accident victim presents with a Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIB open tibial shaft fracture with a 6 cm anterior skin defect and periosteal stripping. Following emergency surgical debridement and joint-spanning external fixation within 6 hours of injury, what is the optimal timeframe for definitive soft tissue coverage to minimize post-operative infection rates?
A.Within 72 hours of injury
B.At 14 to 21 days after initial granulation formation
C.Within 48 to 72 hours of injury
D.Delayed until 6 weeks post-injury after fracture callus formation
Explanation: Definitive soft tissue flap coverage for Gustilo Grade IIIB open tibial fractures should ideally be achieved within 48 to 72 hours (and certainly within 7 days per BOA/BAPRAS guidelines) of the initial injury. Early reconstruction significantly decreases deep infection rates, osteomyelitis, and flap failures compared to delayed coverage beyond 7 days.
2A 35-year-old female sustains a high-energy pelvic ring injury after a fall from height. AP pelvic radiography reveals a Lateral Compression Type 1 (LC-1) fracture with complete sacral fracture displacement and persistent hemodynamic instability despite pelvic binder placement and fluid resuscitation. What is the most appropriate next step in acute resuscitation?
A.Immediate pelvic angiography and transcatheter arterial embolization
B.Urgent open reduction and internal fixation of the anterior pelvic ring
C.Immediate placement of a distal femoral traction pin
D.Bilateral internal iliac artery surgical ligation
Explanation: In lateral compression pelvic injuries with sacral disruption and persistent hemodynamic instability unresponsive to pelvic binding, the primary bleeding source is arterial (such as branches of the internal iliac artery like the superior gluteal or internal pudendal arteries). Immediate pelvic angiography and selective transcatheter embolization is the gold standard intervention.
3A 32-year-old male polytrauma patient sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture (Pauwels Type III, Garden Grade IV). He is hemodynamically stable. What is the definitive operative management of choice to minimize femoral head osteonecrosis?
A.Emergency open reduction and anatomical internal fixation with a sliding hip screw and anti-rotation screw within 6 hours
B.Primary cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty
C.Primary uncemented total hip arthroplasty
D.Closed reduction and percutaneous fixation with 3 cannulated screws in 48 hours
Explanation: In young adults (<50 years) with displaced high-energy femoral neck fractures, joint preservation via urgent, anatomical open reduction and internal fixation (using a sliding hip screw with anti-rotation screw or parallel cannulated screws) within 6 hours is essential to decompress capsular hematoma and preserve the medial femoral circumflex arterial supply.
4A 45-year-old male sustains a Schatzker Grade VI comminuted bicondylar tibial plateau fracture with severe soft tissue compromise and skin blistering. What is the safest surgical strategy?
A.Immediate open reduction and internal fixation with dual locking plates
B.Joint-spanning knee external fixation and delayed definitive ORIF once soft tissue wrinkling occurs
C.Primary total knee arthroplasty with long modular stems
D.Non-operative treatment in a above-knee plaster cast for 8 weeks
Explanation: High-energy bicondylar tibial plateau fractures (Schatzker VI) with severe soft tissue compromise are best treated with a staged protocol: immediate knee-spanning external fixation to restore length and alignment, followed by delayed definitive ORIF (typically 10 to 14 days later) once soft tissue swelling subsides and the positive wrinkle sign appears.
5A 40-year-old woman presents with a displaced volar Barton fracture-dislocation of the distal radius. What is the definitive surgical treatment of choice?
A.Closed reduction and sugar-tong splint immobilization
B.Open reduction and internal fixation via a Henry approach using a volar locking plate
C.Dorsal bridge plating spanning the radiocarpal joint
D.Percutaneous K-wire fixation and cast immobilization
Explanation: Volar Barton fractures are volar marginal intra-articular fracture-dislocations of the distal radius. They are inherently unstable shear injuries that require anatomical open reduction and buttress fixation via a volar (Henry) approach using a anatomical volar locking plate.
6A 68-year-old female on long-term alendronate therapy presents with prodromal thigh pain followed by an atypical subtrochanteric femoral fracture showing lateral cortical thickening and a transverse fracture line. What is the most appropriate implant for surgical stabilization?
A.Dynamic hip screw (DHS) with a side plate
B.Long cephalomedullary intramedullary nail
C.Volar locking distal femoral plate placed inverted
D.External fixation construct
Explanation: Atypical femoral fractures (AFF) associated with long-term bisphosphonate use are tension-side subtrochanteric or shaft fractures characterized by lateral cortical beaking and transverse orientation. A long cephalomedullary nail spanning the entire length of the femur is the implant of choice to protect the entire femoral shaft from secondary stress fractures.
7A 38-year-old male construction worker falls 4 meters and sustains a displaced intra-articular calcaneal fracture (Sanders Type III). Soft tissue swelling has resolved. What surgical approach provides optimal visualization of the subtalar joint and lateral wall?
A.Extensile lateral L-shaped approach
B.Medial McReynolds approach
C.Direct posterior longitudinal approach
D.Anteromedial approach over the sustentaculum tali
Explanation: The extensile lateral approach (or modified sinus tarsi approach) provides comprehensive visualization of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, calcaneocuboid joint, lateral calcaneal wall, and anterior process, enabling anatomical reduction and plate fixation in Sanders III fractures.
8A 24-year-old male sustains a closed mid-shaft humeral fracture following a fall. Physical examination reveals complete wrist drop, thumb extension loss, and sensory loss over the first dorsal web space. X-rays show a simple transverse mid-diaphyseal fracture. What is the correct initial management of the nerve deficit?
A.Observation and clinical re-evaluation with EMG/NCS at 3 to 4 months
B.Immediate open exploration of the radial nerve and fracture ORIF
C.Emergency exploration of the brachial plexus
D.Immediate nerve graft harvest and transfer
Explanation: Acute radial nerve palsy following closed mid-shaft humeral fractures is typically a neuropraxia or axonotmesis in over 85% of cases. Initial non-operative management with splinting, observation, and electrodiagnostic studies at 3-4 months is recommended before considering surgical exploration.
9A 22-year-old male polytrauma patient presents with severe bilateral pulmonary contusions, ARDS (PaO2/FiO2 < 150), and a displaced bilateral femoral shaft fracture. What is the most appropriate acute stabilization technique for the lower extremities?
A.Damage control orthopaedics: immediate temporary knee-spanning external fixation
B.Immediate bilateral reamed intramedullary femoral nailing
C.Immediate bilateral unreamed femoral nailing
D.Bilateral plate and screw fixation
Explanation: In border-zone or unstable polytrauma patients with respiratory failure/ARDS, performing prolonged definitive reamed intramedullary nailing induces a secondary inflammatory insult ('second hit'). Damage Control Orthopaedics (DCO) using rapid temporary external fixation is indicated to minimize physiological stress.
10A 30-year-old male presents 8 hours after a high-energy closed tibial shaft fracture with excruciating pain out of proportion to injury, pain on passive extension of the toes, and tense leg swelling. Passive stretch pain is severe. What is the definitive treatment?
A.Emergency four-compartment double-incision leg fasciotomy
B.Closed reduction of fracture and tight cast application
C.Immediate hyperbaric oxygen therapy
D.Intravenous mannitol and elevation above heart level
Explanation: Acute compartment syndrome of the lower leg is a surgical emergency requiring immediate four-compartment decompression via two double incisions (anterolateral and posteromedial) to prevent irreversible muscular necrosis and nerve ischemia.

About the FC Orth(SA) Final Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Fellowship of the College of Orthopaedic Surgeons of South Africa Final Examination: FC Orth(SA) Final is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.