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100+ Free Dip Obst(SA) Practice Questions

Diploma in Obstetrics of the College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of South Africa: Dip Obst(SA) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Dip Obst(SA) Exam

100 Qs

Practice MCQs

Dip Obst(SA) Curriculum Adaptation

R18 950

Exam Fee

CMSA Fee Schedule SS2026

6 months

Supervised Training

CMSA Diploma Regulations

OSPE/OSCE

Clinical Components

CMSA Exit Examination Format

The CMSA Dip Obst(SA) diploma evaluates obstetric proficiency for medical officers in South Africa with an examination fee of R18 950. The exit exam includes an online written paper, OSPE, and OSCE. This practice bank provides 100 clinically rigorous practice MCQs for written revision.

Sample Dip Obst(SA) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Dip Obst(SA) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 24-year-old primigravida attends her first antenatal booking visit at a community health centre in Limpopo at 14 weeks gestation. According to Maternity Care in South Africa guidelines, which routine screening test should be offered at this booking visit?
A.Oral glucose tolerance test
B.HIV rapid test with same-day result
C.Group B streptococcus vaginal swab
D.Non-stress test
Explanation: HIV testing with same-day result is offered at the first antenatal booking visit per SA guidelines, enabling early initiation of antiretroviral therapy (TLD) to achieve viral suppression before delivery. OGTT is performed at 24–28 weeks for gestational diabetes screening. GBS screening is not routine in SA primary antenatal care.
2A pregnant woman at 8 weeks gestation asks how many routine antenatal visits she should expect if her pregnancy remains uncomplicated. According to the SA focused antenatal care schedule, what is the minimum number of planned visits?
A.4 visits
B.6 visits
C.8 visits
D.12 visits
Explanation: Maternity Care in SA recommends a minimum of 8 antenatal visits for uncomplicated pregnancies, with the first visit before 20 weeks, visits at 20, 26, 30, 34, 36, 38, and 40 weeks. Fewer than 8 visits is associated with increased perinatal mortality in resource-limited settings.
3A 28-year-old woman at 22 weeks gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound shows the placenta completely covering the internal cervical os. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Placental abruption
B.Placenta praevia
C.Vasa praevia
D.Cervical ectropion
Explanation: Placenta praevia presents with painless antepartum haemorrhage, typically in the second or third trimester, with the placenta implanted over or near the internal cervical os. Placental abruption causes painful bleeding with a tender, woody uterus. Digital vaginal examination is contraindicated until praevia is excluded.
4At a rural clinic in KwaZulu-Natal, a midwife measures the symphysis-fundal height (SFH) of a woman at 32 weeks gestation. The SFH measures 26 cm. What does this finding most likely suggest?
A.Normal fetal growth for gestational age
B.Suspected small-for-gestational-age fetus requiring further assessment
C.Macrosomia requiring elective caesarean section
D.Multiple pregnancy
Explanation: From 20 weeks, SFH in centimetres should approximate gestational age in weeks (±2–3 cm). An SFH of 26 cm at 32 weeks suggests lagging fundal growth, raising concern for fetal growth restriction (SGA). Ultrasound for estimated fetal weight and umbilical artery Doppler is indicated.
5A pregnant woman at 16 weeks gestation has a haemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL. She is asymptomatic and taking no iron supplementation. What is the first-line management according to SA antenatal guidelines?
A.Blood transfusion
B.Oral ferrous sulphate 200 mg daily with counselling on adherence
C.Parenteral iron sucrose infusion
D.Reassurance only — no treatment until Hb below 8 g/dL
Explanation: Mild-to-moderate antenatal anaemia (Hb 8–10.9 g/dL) is managed with oral iron supplementation (ferrous sulphate 200 mg daily) plus dietary counselling and deworming if indicated. Blood transfusion is reserved for severe symptomatic anaemia (typically Hb <7 g/dL or Hb <8 g/dL with cardiac compromise).
6Which of the following is a recognised antenatal danger sign that should prompt immediate referral to a higher level of care?
A.Mild ankle oedema in the third trimester
B.Vaginal bleeding at any gestational age
C.Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions after 30 weeks
D.Mild heartburn in the second trimester
Explanation: Vaginal bleeding at any stage of pregnancy is an antenatal danger sign requiring urgent assessment to exclude placenta praevia, abruption, or miscarriage. Mild dependent oedema, Braxton Hicks contractions, and heartburn are common benign pregnancy symptoms when not accompanied by danger features.
7A 30-year-old G2P1 woman at 18 weeks gestation had a previous caesarean section for breech presentation. She wishes to attempt vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC). Which factor most strongly supports a trial of labour?
A.Previous classical (vertical) uterine incision
B.Previous low transverse uterine incision with no other contraindications
C.Maternal BMI of 42 kg/m²
D.Suspected macrosomia with estimated fetal weight 4.5 kg
Explanation: A previous low transverse uterine incision is the strongest predictor of successful VBAC with lower uterine rupture risk (~0.5–1%) compared to classical incision (4–9% rupture risk). Classical incision, extreme obesity, and suspected macrosomia are relative or absolute contraindications to VBAC in district settings.
8A 26-year-old woman at 34 weeks gestation with a twin pregnancy presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination the uterus is tense and tender, and fetal heart rates are absent for both twins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Placenta praevia
B.Placental abruption
C.Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes
D.Uterine inversion
Explanation: Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, a tender woody uterus, and fetal compromise or death. Risk is increased in multiple pregnancy, hypertension, and trauma. Placenta praevia causes painless bleeding. Uterine inversion occurs postpartum, not antenatally.
9A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with active syphilis (positive RPR with titre 1:32). What is the recommended treatment according to SA STI guidelines?
A.Oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 14 days
B.Benzathine benzylpenicillin 2.4 million units IM weekly for 3 weeks
C.Oral azithromycin 1 g single dose
D.Intramuscular ceftriaxone 250 mg single dose
Explanation: Benzathine benzylpenicillin remains the treatment of choice for syphilis in pregnancy, given as 2.4 million units IM weekly for 3 weeks (late latent or unknown duration). Adequate treatment prevents congenital syphilis. Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Azithromycin and single-dose ceftriaxone are inadequate for established syphilis.
10A 32-year-old HIV-positive woman at 10 weeks gestation has a CD4 count of 450 cells/µL and is not yet on antiretroviral therapy. According to current SA HIV guidelines, what is the recommended management?
A.Defer ART until CD4 falls below 200 cells/µL
B.Initiate TLD (tenofovir/lamivudine/dolutegravir) immediately regardless of CD4 count
C.Start zidovudine monotherapy until delivery only
D.Initiate ART only if viral load exceeds 1000 copies/mL at 34 weeks
Explanation: SA guidelines recommend immediate lifelong ART (TLD as first-line) for all HIV-positive pregnant women at diagnosis (Treat All policy), regardless of CD4 count, to achieve viral suppression and prevent mother-to-child transmission. Zidovudine monotherapy is obsolete. ART must not be deferred.

About the Dip Obst(SA) Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Diploma in Obstetrics of the College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of South Africa: Dip Obst(SA) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.