All Practice Exams
100+ Free Dip For Med(SA) Clin Practice Questions
Diploma in Forensic Medicine (Clinical) of the College of Forensic Pathologists of South Africa practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.
✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free
Loading practice questions...
Same family resources
Explore More CMSA Diploma Examinations (South Africa)
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
2026 Statistics
Key Facts: Dip For Med(SA) Clin Exam
2 papers + prac + oral
Exam Format
CMSA Dip For Med(SA) Clin Blueprint
3 hours each
Written Paper Duration
CMSA Dip For Med(SA) Clin Blueprint
R18 950
Exam Fee
CMSA Fee Schedule 2026
50% per paper
Written Subminimum
CMSA Blueprint
CMSA
Exam Body
College of Forensic Pathologists
The Dip For Med(SA) Clin is the benchmark postgraduate qualification for clinical forensic medical practitioners and district surgeons in South Africa. Its exit examination (fee R18 950) is two three-hour written papers plus practical and oral components covering SA medical law, trauma assessment, sexual offences care, and forensic report writing. This free bank provides 100 practice MCQs as a study aid and does not replicate the written papers or practical and oral components.
Sample Dip For Med(SA) Clin Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your Dip For Med(SA) Clin exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1Under Section 212 of the South African Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977, a medical report submitted in the form of an affidavit by a registered medical practitioner serves as which type of evidence in criminal proceedings?
A.Inadmissible hearsay unless the doctor testifies orally in every case
B.Corroborative opinion evidence requiring dual doctor signatures
C.Prima facie proof of the facts stated therein
D.Conclusive proof that cannot be challenged by the defense
Explanation: Section 212(4) of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 provides that an affidavit executed by a registered medical practitioner detailing medical findings (such as a J88 form) is admissible as prima facie proof of those facts in court, avoiding the necessity of calling the practitioner as a witness unless requested by the court or defense.
2Which section of the South African Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 empowers a medical officer or registered medical practitioner to take blood samples and examine an accused person upon request by a police officer?
A.Section 205
B.Section 225
C.Section 37
D.Section 212
Explanation: Section 37 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 authorizes a police official, medical officer, or registered medical practitioner to take blood samples, ascertain bodily features, and conduct medical examinations of accused persons.
3Under Section 110 of the Children's Act 38 of 2005, what is the statutory obligation of a medical practitioner who concludes on reasonable grounds that a child has been abused or neglected?
A.Must refer the child exclusively to a private psychiatrist without external reporting
B.Must immediately complete Form 22 and report to a designated child protection organisation, provincial department of social development, or police official
C.Must maintain strict medical confidentiality unless the parents give written consent to report
D.Must wait for a court order before reporting the suspicion to SAPS
Explanation: Section 110 of the Children's Act 38 of 2005 creates a mandatory statutory duty for healthcare professionals to complete Form 22 and report suspected child abuse, deliberate neglect, or sexual abuse to a designated child protection organisation, social worker, or police official.
4According to Section 7 of the National Health Act 61 of 2003, when may emergency medical treatment be administered to an adult patient without obtaining informed consent?
A.Whenever the treating doctor believes the treatment is beneficial, regardless of patient capacity
B.When the patient is unconscious or lacks decision-making capacity, and delay would endanger life or health
C.Only if the patient's immediate family member signs a waiver of liability
D.Only when a court order has been granted by a High Court judge
Explanation: Section 7(1)(e) of the National Health Act 61 of 2003 permits health services to be provided without informed consent if the user is unable to give informed consent and the health service is necessary to prevent death or permanent damage to the health of the user.
5Under Section 14 of the National Health Act 61 of 2003, patient health records are confidential. In which scenario is disclosure of medical information WITHOUT patient consent lawful?
A.When mandated by a court order or statutory provision, or when non-disclosure presents a serious threat to public health
B.When requested by the patient's employer for routine HR records
C.When requested by a commercial health insurance company without signed patient consent
D.Whenever requested verbally by an investigating SAPS officer
Explanation: Section 14(1) of the National Health Act permits disclosure without consent only if the patient consents in writing, a court order or law requires it, or non-disclosure threatens public health.
6Under Section 129 of the Children's Act 38 of 2005, what is the minimum age at which a child may independently consent to medical treatment without parental assistance, provided the child is of sufficient maturity?
A.14 years
B.12 years
C.16 years
D.18 years
Explanation: Section 129(2) of the Children's Act 38 of 2005 specifies that a child may consent to his or her own medical treatment if the child is 12 years of age or older and is of sufficient maturity and mental capacity to understand the benefits, risks, and implications.
7Under Section 129(3) of the Children's Act 38 of 2005, what additional requirement must be satisfied for a 13-year-old child to consent to a surgical operation?
A.A High Court order must be obtained in all cases
B.Two independent specialist surgeons must co-sign the consent
C.The child must be assisted by his or her parent or guardian
D.The Superintendent-General of Health must grant written approval
Explanation: While a child aged 12 or older with sufficient maturity can consent independently to medical treatment, Section 129(3) requires that for a surgical operation, the child must be 12 years or older AND duly assisted by a parent or guardian.
8Under the Mental Health Care Act 17 of 2002, what is the maximum initial period permitted for 72-hour assessment of an involuntary mental health care user at a designated facility?
A.72 hours
B.24 hours
C.14 days
D.7 days
Explanation: Section 34 of the Mental Health Care Act 17 of 2002 establishes a mandatory 72-hour assessment period by medical practitioners at a designated health establishment to evaluate whether continued involuntary care is required.
9Under the Choice on Termination of Pregnancy Act 92 of 1996, termination of pregnancy between the 13th and 20th week of gestation may be performed if a medical practitioner, after consultation with the pregnant woman, is of the opinion that:
A.The woman is under 18 years of age and her parents consent
B.The partner or biological father provides written consent
C.The continued pregnancy would pose a risk of injury to the woman's physical or mental health, or there is a substantial risk of severe fetal physical or mental abnormality
D.The woman requests termination for any social or economic reason without clinical justification
Explanation: Under Section 2(1)(b) of Act 92 of 1996, termination from 13 up to 20 weeks requires a medical practitioner's opinion based on specific grounds: health risk to mother, severe fetal abnormality, rape/incest, or severe risk to social/economic circumstances.
10What is a statutory duty of healthcare workers attending to a victim of domestic violence under the Domestic Violence Act 116 of 1998?
A.Confiscate the victim's personal identification documents for safe custody
B.Provide medical treatment, document injuries thoroughly, and inform the victim of their rights including applying for a protection order
C.Refuse medical treatment until a protection order is issued by a magistrate
D.Forcefully arrest the perpetrator if present in the casualty department
Explanation: Under the Domestic Violence Act 116 of 1998 and national guidelines, healthcare providers attending domestic violence victims must render medical care, document physical injuries accurately, provide advice on rights to apply for protection orders, and assist with shelter/SAPS referral.
About the Dip For Med(SA) Clin Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Diploma in Forensic Medicine (Clinical) of the College of Forensic Pathologists of South Africa is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.