All Practice Exams

100+ Free Cert Nephrology(SA) Phys Practice Questions

Sub-specialty Certificate in Nephrology of the College of Physicians of South Africa practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Cert Nephrology(SA) Phys Exam

2 components

Written + oral/OSCE

CMSA Cert Nephrology Regulations

50% each

Subminimum per component

CMSA Examination Regulations

R24 650

Exam Fee

CMSA 2026 Fee Schedule

50% overall

Pass Mark

CMSA Examination Regulations

CMSA

Exam Body

College of Physicians of SA

The Cert Nephrology(SA) Phys is a rigorous two-component exit examination (written short-answer papers plus an oral/OSCE/clinical component, each 50%) for specialist physicians completing sub-specialty nephrology fellowship training in South Africa.

Sample Cert Nephrology(SA) Phys Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Cert Nephrology(SA) Phys exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1According to the KDIGO clinical practice guidelines for Acute Kidney Injury (AKI), which of the following criteria defines Stage 1 AKI based on serum creatinine criteria?
A.Increase in serum creatinine to 3.0 times baseline or serum creatinine ≥353.6 µmol/L
B.Increase in serum creatinine by ≥26.5 µmol/L within 48 hours or 1.5–1.9 times baseline within 7 days
C.Increase in serum creatinine to 2.0–2.9 times baseline within 7 days
D.Initiation of renal replacement therapy regardless of serum creatinine level
Explanation: KDIGO Stage 1 AKI is defined as an absolute increase in serum creatinine by ≥26.5 µmol/L within 48 hours, or a relative increase in serum creatinine to 1.5 to 1.9 times baseline within 7 days, or urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6–12 hours.
2A 68-year-old male with chronic heart failure on daily furosemide presents with acute oliguria and an elevated serum creatinine of 210 µmol/L. Which diagnostic parameter is most reliable to distinguish prerenal azotemia from intrinsic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in this patient?
A.Urine specific gravity > 1.020
B.Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) < 1%
C.Fractional excretion of urea (FEUrea) < 35%
D.Urine sodium concentration < 20 mmol/L
Explanation: In patients actively receiving loop diuretics, sodium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb is inhibited, rendering FENa and urine sodium falsely elevated (>1% and >20 mmol/L) even in true prerenal states. Fractional excretion of urea (FEUrea) is independent of loop diuretic action because urea reabsorption occurs primarily in the proximal tubule and inner medullary collecting duct. An FEUrea <35% strongly indicates prerenal azotemia.
3Which portion of the nephron is predominantly damaged by aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin), leading to non-oliguric acute tubular necrosis?
A.Distal convoluted tubule
B.Cortical collecting duct principal cells
C.Proximal convoluted tubule epithelial cells (S1 and S2 segments)
D.Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Explanation: Aminoglycosides are freely filtered at the glomerulus and endocytosed by megalin-cubilin receptor complexes on the brush border of proximal convoluted tubule (S1/S2) epithelial cells. They accumulate within lysosomes, causing lysosomal rupture, mitochondrial toxicity, phospholipidosis, and cell necrosis leading to non-oliguric ATN.
4A 62-year-old diabetic female with CKD Stage 3b (eGFR 38 mL/min/1.73m²) is scheduled for elective coronary angiography. According to clinical practice guidelines, which intervention is proven to reduce the risk of Contrast-Associated Acute Kidney Injury (CA-AKI)?
A.Intravenous N-acetylcysteine bolus combined with oral sodium bicarbonate
B.Prophylactic intravenous 0.9% isotonic saline expanded volume expansion
C.Prophylactic low-dose dopamine infusion
D.Prophylactic fenoldopam continuous infusion
Explanation: Intravenous volume expansion with isotonic crystalloids (0.9% sodium chloride or sodium bicarbonate) at 1–1.5 mL/kg/h for 12 hours before and after the procedure is the single proven evidence-based measure to prevent CA-AKI in high-risk patients. Large randomized trials (PRESERVE trial) demonstrated no benefit for N-acetylcysteine, dopamine, or fenoldopam.
5A 54-year-old male develops a rise in serum creatinine from 90 to 280 µmol/L three weeks after starting omeprazole for gastro-esophageal reflux disease. Urinalysis reveals sterile pyuria and white blood cell casts. What is the most definitive diagnostic test to establish the diagnosis?
A.Gallium-67 renal scintigraphy scan showing diffuse uptake
B.Urinary eosinophil testing using Hansel stain
C.Serum IgE elevation and peripheral blood eosinophilia count
D.Percutaneous renal biopsy showing tubulointestinal inflammatory infiltrate with eosinophils
Explanation: Renal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic gold standard for drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis (AIN). Biopsy demonstrates patchy interstitial edema, inflammatory infiltrate (T-lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils, and plasma cells), and tubulitis. Urinary eosinophil testing lacks both sensitivity and specificity for drug-induced AIN.
6A 28-year-old cross-fit athlete presents with severe muscular pain, dark brownish urine, and serum creatine kinase (CK) of 68,000 U/L. Urine dipstick is strongly positive for 'blood', but microscopy reveals only 0–2 red blood cells per high-power field. Which mechanism accounts for AKI in this setting?
A.Renal vein thrombosis due to hypercoagulability
B.Immune complex deposition within glomerular capillary loops
C.Intratubular obstruction by myoglobin casts, direct tubular toxicity, and intrarenal vasoconstriction
D.Direct immunologic complement-mediated lysis of podocytes
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis causes AKI (pigment nephropathy) via three synergistic mechanisms: 1) filtered free myoglobin precipitates with Tamm-Horsfall protein in acidic tubular fluid causing distal cast obstruction; 2) ferrihemate generation exerts direct toxic oxidative cytotoxicity on proximal tubular cells; and 3) severe fluid sequestration into damaged muscle triggers volume depletion and renal vasoconstriction.
7Which of the following is a mandatory diagnostic criteria for Hepatorenal Syndrome - Acute Kidney Injury (HRS-AKI) according to the International Club of Ascites (ICA) consensus criteria?
A.Absence of response after 2 consecutive days of withdrawal of diuretics and volume expansion with albumin (1 g/kg/day)
B.Fractional excretion of sodium > 2.0%
C.Presence of proteinuria > 1.0 g/day on 24-hour urine collection
D.Renal ultrasonography demonstrating bilateral small shrunken kidneys
Explanation: The revised ICA criteria for HRS-AKI require: diagnosis of cirrhosis with ascites; diagnosis of AKI according to KDIGO criteria; no response after at least 48 hours of diuretic withdrawal and volume expansion with albumin (1 g/kg/day up to a max of 100 g/day); absence of shock; no current or recent exposure to nephrotoxic drugs; and absence of organic kidney disease (proteinuria <500 mg/day, microhematuria <50 RBC/hpf, normal renal ultrasound).
8A 42-year-old trauma patient in the ICU following emergency laparotomy develops progressive oliguria. Intra-abdominal pressure (IAP) measured via bladder catheter is 24 mmHg, and mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 70 mmHg. What is the calculated Renal Perfusion Pressure (RPP) in this patient?
A.46 mmHg
B.94 mmHg
C.24 mmHg
D.70 mmHg
Explanation: Abdominal Perfusion Pressure (APP) / Renal Perfusion Pressure (RPP) in the presence of intra-abdominal hypertension is calculated as: RPP = Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) - Intra-Abdominal Pressure (IAP). Here, RPP = 70 mmHg - 24 mmHg = 46 mmHg. An RPP < 60 mmHg severely compromises renal blood flow and glomerular filtration.
9A 32-year-old male presents with sudden onset generalized edema, serum albumin of 18 g/L, 24-hour urinary protein of 8.4 g, and normal kidney function. Light microscopy of renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli, and immunofluorescence is completely negative. What expected ultrastructural finding on electron microscopy confirms the diagnosis?
A.Widespread thinning and splitting of the glomerular basement membrane
B.Diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes
C.Subepithelial immune complex electron-dense spikes
D.Subendothelial electron-dense deposits with double-contour duplication
Explanation: This patient presents with classic Minimal Change Disease (MCD). Light microscopy appears normal (hence 'minimal change') and immunofluorescence is negative. Electron microscopy (EM) characteristically reveals diffuse effacement (flattening/fusion) of visceral epithelial cell (podocyte) foot processes.
10Which target antigen is responsible for approximately 70–80% of primary (idiopathic) Membranous Nephropathy cases?
A.M-type phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R)
B.Neural epidermal growth factor-like 1 (NELL-1)
C.Thrombospondin type-1 domain-containing 7A (THSD7A)
D.Semaphorin 3B (SEMA3B)
Explanation: Transmembrane glycoprotein M-type phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R), expressed on human podocytes, is the major target autoantigen in 70–80% of primary membranous nephropathy cases. Circulating anti-PLA2R antibodies correlate with disease activity, histologic severity, and therapeutic response.

About the Cert Nephrology(SA) Phys Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Sub-specialty Certificate in Nephrology of the College of Physicians of South Africa is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.