100+ Free Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Exam

2 components

Written + oral/OSCE

CMSA Examination Regulations

50% each

Subminimum per component

CMSA Exam Guidelines

R24 650

Exam Fee

CMSA 2026 Fee Structure

50% overall

Pass Mark

CMSA Examination Regulations

CMSA

Exam Body

College of Physicians of SA

The Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys is a rigorous two-component sub-specialty exit examination (written short-answer papers plus an oral/OSCE/clinical component, each 50%) for physician hematologists in South Africa covering malignant, non-malignant, hemostatic, transplant, and transfusion haematology.

Sample Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1According to the 2022 European LeukemiaNet (ELN) genetic risk classification for Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), in which risk category is a patient with mutated NPM1 without FLT3-ITD (or with low FLT3-ITD allelic ratio) classified?

A.Adverse risk

B.Intermediate risk

C.Very high risk

D.Favorable risk

Explanation: In the 2022 ELN risk stratification, AML with mutated NPM1 without FLT3-ITD is classified as Favorable risk in the absence of adverse cytogenetic abnormalities. These patients achieve high rates of complete remission with standard induction chemotherapy.

2A 34-year-old female presents with severe fatigue, petechiae, and bleeding gums. Peripheral blood shows prominent promyelocytes with abundant Auer rods (Faggot cells). Coagulation testing reveals DIC with prolonged PT/aPTT and hypofibrinogenemia. What is the immediate target therapy combined with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)?

A.High-dose Cytarabine (HiDAC)

B.Rituximab

C.Arsenic trioxide (ATO)

D.Imatinib mesylate

Explanation: First-line treatment for low-to-intermediate risk Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) is the chemotherapy-free doublet of ATRA and Arsenic Trioxide (ATO). This combination induces differentiation and degradation of the PML-RARA fusion protein, achieving cure rates exceeding 90-95%.

3In patients with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) receiving frontline Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor (TKI) therapy, what BCR-ABL1 transcript level on the International Scale (IS) defines an Early Molecular Response (EMR) at 3 months?

A.BCR-ABL1 (IS) ≤ 10%

B.BCR-ABL1 (IS) ≤ 0.01% (MR4.0)

C.BCR-ABL1 (IS) ≤ 0.1% (MR3.0)

D.BCR-ABL1 (IS) ≤ 1%

Explanation: Early Molecular Response (EMR) at 3 months post-TKI initiation is defined as BCR-ABL1 transcript level ≤ 10% on the International Scale (IS). Achieving EMR at 3 months strongly correlates with superior progression-free and overall survival.

4Which characteristic immunophenotypic profile on flow cytometry is diagnostic for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

A.CD11c+, CD25+, CD103+, CD123+, annexin A1+

B.CD5+, CD23-, CD19+, strong surface immunoglobulin, FMC7+

C.CD5+, CD23+, CD19+, weak surface immunoglobulin, CD200+

D.CD10+, CD19+, CD20+, BCL2+, CD5-

Explanation: Classic CLL immunophenotype shows co-expression of CD5 and CD23 on B cells (CD19+, CD20 dim, CD22 dim), with weak surface immunoglobulin expression and strong CD200 positivity, yielding a high Matutes score (4 or 5).

5According to the updated International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) criteria, which of the following represents a validated Myeloma-Defining Event (SLiM criteria) in an asymptomatic patient without classic CRAB organ damage?

A.Serum monoclonal protein level ≥ 15 g/L

B.Presence of a single bone lesion on plain X-ray

C.Involved to uninvolved serum free light chain ratio ≥ 20

D.Bone marrow plasma cell percentage ≥ 60%

Explanation: The SLiM criteria define active Multiple Myeloma in the absence of CRAB end-organ damage: S = Sixty percent (≥60%) bone marrow plasma cells; Li = Light chain ratio (involved/uninvolved serum FLC ratio ≥ 100); M = MRI (>1 focal bone lesion ≥5mm).

6A 58-year-old male is evaluated for persistent ruddy cyanosis, aquagenic pruritus, and splenomegaly. Full blood count shows Hb 18.8 g/dL, Hct 56%, platelets 520 x 10^9/L, and WCC 13.5 x 10^9/L. Serum erythropoietin (EPO) is subnormal. Which genetic mutation is detected in >95% of patients with Polycythemia Vera (PV)?

A.MPL W515L mutation in exon 10

B.CALR exon 9 frameshift insertion/deletion

C.BCR-ABL1 reciprocal translocation t(9;22)

D.JAK2 V617F mutation in exon 14

Explanation: Over 95% of Polycythemia Vera patients harbor the somatic JAK2 V617F mutation in exon 14 (with the remaining ~3-4% harboring JAK2 exon 12 mutations). JAK2 activation causes constitutive erythropoietin-independent erythropoiesis.

7In a 65-year-old patient diagnosed with Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) carrying a JAK2 V617F mutation, what is the primary risk factor indicating high-risk status requiring cytoreductive therapy?

A.Presence of microvascular symptoms like erythromelalgia

B.Platelet count > 600 x 10^9/L

C.Leukocyte count > 10 x 10^9/L

D.Age > 60 years or history of thrombosis

Explanation: High-risk Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) in standard risk stratification models (such as IPSET-Thrombosis) is defined primarily by Age > 60 years OR a prior history of venous or arterial thrombosis, mandating cytoreductive therapy (e.g., hydroxyurea).

8What hallmark reciprocal chromosomal translocation is present in over 85% of Follicular Lymphoma cases, leading to overexpression of the anti-apoptotic protein BCL2?

A.t(3;14)(q27;q32)

B.t(14;18)(q32;q21)

C.t(8;14)(q24;q32)

D.t(11;14)(q13;q32)

Explanation: Follicular Lymphoma is characterized by t(14;18)(q32;q21), which places the BCL2 proto-oncogene under the control of the immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGH) enhancer region on chromosome 14, resulting in BCL2 protein overexpression and inhibition of apoptosis.

9A 62-year-old male undergoes lymph node biopsy revealing a mantle zone proliferation of small-to-medium cleaved lymphoid cells. Immunohistochemistry shows nuclear Cyclin D1 positivity and SOX11 positivity. Which chromosomal translocation confirms Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A.t(11;14)(q13;q32)

B.t(15;17)(q22;q21)

C.t(2;5)(p23;q35)

D.t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Explanation: Mantle Cell Lymphoma (MCL) is universally driven by the t(11;14)(q13;q32) translocation, juxtaposing CCND1 (cyclin D1) to the IGH locus, causing cyclin D1 nuclear overexpression and deregulated G1/S cell cycle transition.

10In Classical Hodgkin Lymphoma (cHL), what is the typical immunophenotypic marker profile of the diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells?

A.CD3+, CD4+, CD25+, HTLV-1+, CD30-

B.CD30+, CD15+, PAX5 weak+, CD20-, CD45-

C.CD138+, CD56+, CD19-, CD45-, CD30-

D.CD20+, CD45+, EMA+, CD30-, CD15-

Explanation: Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells in Classical Hodgkin Lymphoma (cHL) are derived from B cells but lose B-cell lineage markers. They characteristically express CD30 (100%) and CD15 (75-85%), with dim nuclear PAX5, while negative for CD45 and usually negative or weakly variable for CD20.

About the Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Exam

The Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys is the official sub-specialty certification examination administered by the College of Physicians within the Colleges of Medicine of South Africa. It assesses advanced clinical expertise in adult hematological malignancies, hemostatic and thrombotic disorders, stem cell transplantation, cellular therapies, and transfusion medicine required for registration as a Specialist Clinical Haematologist.

Assessment

Two components each contributing 50%: a written component (short-answer written papers) and an oral/OSCE/OSPE/clinical component. Content spans 4 blueprint areas: Adult Malignant Haematology (35%), Hemostasis, Thrombosis & Anticoagulation (25%), Bone Marrow Transplantation & Cell Therapy (20%), and Non-Malignant Haematology & Transfusion Medicine (20%).

Time Limit

Written short-answer papers plus an OSCE and viva component.

Passing Score

Overall pass mark 50% with a 50% subminimum in each of the two components (written and oral/OSCE/OSPE/clinical).

Exam Fee

R24 650 (Colleges of Medicine of South Africa (CMSA), College of Physicians)

Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Exam Content Outline

35%

Adult Malignant Haematology

Acute and chronic leukaemias, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, multiple myeloma, myelodysplastic syndromes, and myeloproliferative neoplasms.

25%

Hemostasis, Thrombosis & Anticoagulation

Bleeding disorders, platelet dysfunction, vWD, hemophilia, thrombotic microangiopathies, VTE, antiphospholipid syndrome, and anticoagulation therapy.

20%

Bone Marrow Transplantation & Cell Therapy

Autologous and allogeneic HSCT, conditioning regimens, acute and chronic GvHD, graft failure, chimerism, and CAR-T cell immunotherapy.

20%

Non-Malignant Haematology & Transfusion Medicine

Nutritional anemias, hemoglobinopathies, bone marrow failure, blood component therapy, transfusion reactions, and immunohematology.

How to Pass the Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Overall pass mark 50% with a 50% subminimum in each of the two components (written and oral/OSCE/OSPE/clinical).
Assessment: Two components each contributing 50%: a written component (short-answer written papers) and an oral/OSCE/OSPE/clinical component. Content spans 4 blueprint areas: Adult Malignant Haematology (35%), Hemostasis, Thrombosis & Anticoagulation (25%), Bone Marrow Transplantation & Cell Therapy (20%), and Non-Malignant Haematology & Transfusion Medicine (20%).
Time limit: Written short-answer papers plus an OSCE and viva component.
Exam fee: R24 650

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master the WHO 5th edition and ICC classifications for myeloid and lymphoid malignancies, including high-yield genetic markers (e.g., FLT3-ITD, NPM1, TP53, MYC/BCL2 rearrangements).

2Stay current on direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) reversal strategies, TTP diagnostic workup (ADAMTS13), and management of catastrophic antiphospholipid syndrome.

3Understand diagnostic criteria and 1st/2nd line treatments for acute vs chronic GvHD, graft failure workup, and CAR-T toxicities (CRS and ICANS grading and management with tocilizumab/steroids).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the CMSA Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys examination?

The exit examination has two components, each contributing 50%: a written component (short-answer written papers) and an oral/OSCE/OSPE/clinical component. Candidates must achieve an overall 50% with a 50% subminimum in each component. This free question bank provides 100 practice MCQs as a study aid and does not replicate the official format.

What is the examination fee and eligibility for Cert Clin Haematology(SA) Phys?

The fee is R24 650. Candidates must hold the FCP(SA) or equivalent specialist qualification in Internal Medicine and have completed accredited sub-specialty clinical haematology registrar training.

What topics are covered in the examination blueprint?

The exam covers four main areas: Adult Malignant Haematology (35%), Hemostasis, Thrombosis & Anticoagulation (25%), Bone Marrow Transplantation & Cell Therapy (20%), and Non-Malignant Haematology & Transfusion Medicine (20%).