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Published per sitting by the SRA (October 2025: 78% overall, 79% first-time) Pass Rate
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2026 Statistics
Key Facts: SQE2 Exam
16
Skills Stations (12 written + 4 oral)
SRA SQE2 Assessment Specification
~5 half-days
Assessment Duration
SRA SQE2 Assessment Specification
78%
October 2025 Overall Pass Rate (79% first-time)
SRA October 2025 SQE2 Statistical Report
£2,974
SQE2 Fee to Sept 2026 (£3,086 after)
SRA cost page (2026)
4 a year
Sittings (Jan, Apr, Jul, Oct)
SRA SQE
100+
Practice Questions Here
OpenExamPrep question bank
SQE2 is the practical legal skills stage of the Solicitors Qualifying Examination, administered by the Solicitors Regulation Authority (SRA) and delivered by Kaplan. It is not a multiple-choice exam: candidates complete 16 stations - 12 written (case and matter analysis, legal research, legal writing, and legal drafting) and 4 oral (advocacy, and client interview with attendance note) - assessed across roughly five half-days. The stations span five practice areas: Criminal Litigation; Dispute Resolution; Property Practice; Wills and Intestacy, Probate Administration and Practice; and Business Organisations, Rules and Procedures, including money laundering and financial services. Each station is marked on both the legal skill and the applied legal knowledge, weighted equally, against a single 'day-one solicitor' standard, so there is no published percentage pass mark. SQE2 runs four times a year - in January, April, July, and October - and candidates must have passed SQE1 first unless exempt. The fee is £2,974 up to September 2026, rising to £3,086 from September 2026; the SRA publishes per-sitting pass rates (the October 2025 sitting was 78% overall). Our question bank reinforces the underlying applied legal knowledge that the skills stations draw on.
Sample SQE2 Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your SQE2 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A solicitor attends a police station to advise a client who has been arrested on suspicion of robbery, an indictable offence. The custody officer says the 24-hour detention clock is about to expire and the investigating team wants more time to question the client. Who can authorise continued detention up to 36 hours from the relevant time?
A.An officer of at least the rank of superintendent
B.A magistrates' court, on a written application by the police
C.The custody officer, on the request of the investigating officer
D.The Crown Prosecution Service duty prosecutor
Explanation: Under s.42 PACE 1984, an officer of at least the rank of superintendent may authorise continued detention up to 36 hours from the relevant time for an indictable offence, where the investigation is being conducted diligently and detention is necessary to secure or obtain evidence. Beyond 36 hours requires a magistrates' warrant of further detention.
2During a police interview, a solicitor's client is asked questions and chooses to remain silent on legal advice. At trial the client raises a defence not mentioned in interview. What is the principal evidential consequence the solicitor must warn the client about before the interview?
A.The interview will be automatically excluded under s.78 PACE
B.The court or jury may draw an adverse inference from the failure to mention a fact later relied on
C.The prosecution must prove the silence was deliberate beyond reasonable doubt
D.Silence in interview is inadmissible and cannot be referred to at trial
Explanation: Under s.34 Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994, a court or jury may draw an adverse inference where a defendant fails to mention, when questioned under caution, a fact later relied on in defence which it would have been reasonable to mention. The solicitor must explain this risk when advising on whether to answer questions.
3A client is charged with an either-way offence of theft and appears before the magistrates' court. The magistrates accept jurisdiction and the client must decide on mode of trial. What advice should the solicitor give about the client's right to elect Crown Court trial?
A.The client has no right to elect; mode of trial is decided solely by the magistrates
B.The client may only be tried in the Crown Court if the prosecution consents
C.The client may elect trial by jury in the Crown Court even where the magistrates are willing to retain the case
D.The client must be sent to the Crown Court because theft is an indictable-only offence
Explanation: For an either-way offence, once the magistrates accept jurisdiction at the plea before venue and allocation stage, the defendant retains the right to elect trial by jury in the Crown Court. The solicitor must advise on the advantages and risks of each venue, including sentencing powers and acquittal rates.
4A defendant in the Crown Court intends to plead not guilty to a charge of assault occasioning actual bodily harm. The prosecution serves its case. Under the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996, what must the defence serve to trigger the prosecution's continuing duty of disclosure of unused material?
A.A skeleton argument on admissibility
B.A request for specific disclosure under s.8 before any obligation arises
C.A notice of intention to call alibi witnesses only
D.A defence statement setting out the nature of the defence and matters of fact in issue
Explanation: Under s.5 CPIA 1996, in Crown Court proceedings the defence must serve a defence statement setting out the nature of the defence, the matters of fact on which the defendant takes issue with the prosecution, and why. Service of the defence statement triggers the prosecution's continuing duty to review and disclose unused material that might assist the defence.
5A solicitor is advising a client who has been arrested and is being held in custody. The police propose to hold an identification procedure. The client disputes that he was the person involved. Under PACE Code D, which procedure should normally be offered first?
A.A video identification parade using moving images
B.A confrontation between the suspect and the witness
C.A group identification in a public place
D.A formal court identification at the first hearing
Explanation: Under PACE Code D, where identification is disputed and a suspect is known and available, a video identification (VIPER) is normally the first procedure offered, as it is considered the fairest and most reliable. Live parades, group identification, and confrontation are alternatives used only where video identification is not practicable.
6A youth aged 16 is detained at a police station and is to be interviewed about a suspected burglary. The solicitor notes that no appropriate adult is present. What is the correct position before the interview proceeds?
A.The interview may proceed because the youth has a solicitor present
B.An appropriate adult must be present for the interview of a juvenile, in addition to any solicitor
C.An appropriate adult is only required for suspects under 14
D.The custody officer may waive the appropriate adult requirement for cooperative juveniles
Explanation: Under PACE Code C, a juvenile (a person who appears to be under 18) must not be interviewed without an appropriate adult present, in addition to any legal adviser. The solicitor and appropriate adult perform distinct roles, so the presence of a solicitor does not remove the need for an appropriate adult.
7A client charged with a summary-only offence wishes to apply for a representation order (criminal legal aid) for the magistrates' court. Which two-part test must be satisfied?
A.The good character test and the financial eligibility test
B.The residence test and the seriousness test
C.The means test and the merits (interests of justice) test
D.The proportionality test and the public interest test
Explanation: Criminal legal aid in the magistrates' court is granted where the applicant passes both the means test (financial eligibility) and the merits or interests of justice test under the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012. The interests of justice factors include risk of loss of liberty and the complexity of the case.
8A defendant is convicted in the magistrates' court of a summary offence and wishes to challenge the conviction. He maintains he was not guilty on the facts. What is the appropriate route of appeal?
A.Judicial review in the Administrative Court
B.Application to reopen the case before the same bench under s.142
C.Appeal by way of case stated to the High Court on the facts
D.Appeal to the Crown Court, which is a full rehearing of the case
Explanation: A defendant convicted in the magistrates' court may appeal to the Crown Court against conviction and/or sentence. This appeal takes the form of a complete rehearing, allowing the defendant to challenge findings of fact. Appeal by case stated and judicial review are confined to points of law or jurisdiction.
9A solicitor representing a defendant at a Crown Court trial wishes to make a submission of no case to answer at the close of the prosecution case. On what basis is such a submission properly made?
A.That there is no evidence, or the evidence is so weak that no reasonable jury could properly convict
B.That the defence evidence is stronger than the prosecution evidence
C.That the defendant has a previously good character
D.That the prosecution failed to call every available witness
Explanation: Applying the test in R v Galbraith, a submission of no case to answer succeeds where there is no evidence that the defendant committed the offence, or where the prosecution evidence, taken at its highest, is so tenuous that no reasonable jury properly directed could convict. It is assessed on the prosecution evidence alone before the defence case.
10A solicitor is preparing a plea in mitigation for a client who has pleaded guilty at the first available opportunity to a triable either-way offence in the magistrates' court. What is the maximum credit for a guilty plea the solicitor should expect the court to apply?
A.A reduction of one-half from the otherwise appropriate sentence
B.A reduction of one-third from the sentence that would otherwise be imposed
C.A reduction of one-tenth in all cases
D.No reduction is available for either-way offences
Explanation: Under the Sentencing Council's Guideline on Reduction in Sentence for a Guilty Plea, the maximum reduction of one-third is available where the plea is entered at the first stage of proceedings. The reduction reduces on a sliding scale as proceedings progress, reflecting the saving of court time and witness inconvenience.
About the SQE2 Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Solicitors Qualifying Examination Part 2 (Practical Legal Skills Assessment) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.