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2026 Statistics
Key Facts: Bar Course Centralised Assessments Exam
3 assessments
Civil & Criminal Litigation + Professional Ethics
Bar Standards Board
~75
Criminal Litigation MCQ/SBA Questions
Bar Standards Board
3 cycles
December, April, and August Sittings
Bar Standards Board
BSB standard
Competence-Based Pass Mark
Bar Standards Board
£13,000-£19,000
Typical Bar Course Tuition
Bar training providers (2026)
100+
Practice Questions Here
OpenExamPrep question bank
The Bar Course Centralised Assessments are the BSB-set knowledge exams on the vocational component of Bar training in England and Wales, replacing the old BPTC. They cover Civil Litigation, Criminal Litigation, and Professional Ethics. Civil Litigation is examined through MCQs and single-best-answer questions across a closed-book Paper 1 (about two hours) and an open-book Paper 2 (about two and a half hours); Criminal Litigation is a closed-book paper of roughly 75 MCQ and SBA questions over about three hours; Professional Ethics is a separate assessment normally taken during pupillage. For 2026 the Criminal Litigation syllabus tracks Blackstone's Criminal Practice 2026 and Civil Litigation tracks the White Book 2025/2026. Assessment cycles run in December, April, and August. The pass standard is a BSB-set competence threshold rather than a fixed percentage, and the BSB does not publish a single overall pass rate; candidates must hold a qualifying law degree or GDL/PgDL conversion and be enrolled with an Authorised Education and Training Organisation such as the ICCA, BPP, or City Law School.
Sample Bar Course Centralised Assessments Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your Bar Course Centralised Assessments exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A claimant intends to issue a money claim for breach of a commercial contract. Before issuing proceedings, what does the Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols primarily require the parties to do?
A.File a claim form at court within 14 days of the dispute arising
B.Obtain the court's permission before sending any letter of claim
C.Exchange concise information about the claim and the response, and consider alternative dispute resolution, before issuing proceedings
D.Serve particulars of claim verified by a statement of truth on the proposed defendant
Explanation: The Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols requires parties to exchange sufficient information to understand each other's position, try to settle without proceedings, and consider a form of ADR. Litigation should be a last resort. Non-compliance can result in costs and other sanctions.
2Under the CPR, by when must a claim form be served on a defendant within the jurisdiction after it has been issued?
A.Within 28 days after the date of issue
B.Within 6 months after the date of issue
C.Within 14 days after the date of issue
D.Within 4 months after the date of issue
Explanation: CPR 7.5 requires a claim form to be served within 4 months after the date of issue where it is to be served within the jurisdiction. The relevant step (e.g. posting) must be completed before midnight on the calendar day four months after issue. The period is 6 months only where the claim form is served out of the jurisdiction.
3A defendant has been served with particulars of claim. To avoid default judgment, within what period must the defendant file an acknowledgment of service?
A.21 days after service of the particulars of claim
B.14 days after service of the particulars of claim
C.28 days after service of the particulars of claim
D.7 days after service of the particulars of claim
Explanation: Under CPR 10.3, a defendant must file an acknowledgment of service within 14 days after service of the particulars of claim. Filing an acknowledgment then extends the period for filing a defence to 28 days from service of the particulars of claim under CPR 15.4.
4A personal injury claim has a value of GBP 18,000 with the value of the pain, suffering and loss of amenity exceeding the small claims limit. Damages are likely to total around GBP 18,000. To which track is this claim most likely to be allocated?
A.Fast track
B.Small claims track
C.Intermediate track
D.Multi-track
Explanation: Under CPR 26, the fast track is the normal track for claims with a value between GBP 10,000 and GBP 25,000 where the trial is likely to last no longer than one day. A GBP 18,000 personal injury claim of ordinary complexity normally falls within the fast track. The intermediate track generally covers claims above GBP 25,000 up to GBP 100,000.
5A claimant applies for summary judgment against the defendant. What is the test the court applies under CPR Part 24?
A.Whether the defence is bound to be dismissed at trial beyond reasonable doubt
B.Whether the statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for defending the claim
C.Whether the defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue and there is no other compelling reason for a trial
D.Whether the defendant has acted in a manner likely to obstruct the just disposal of the proceedings
Explanation: Under CPR 24.3, the court may give summary judgment where a party has no real prospect of succeeding on or defending the claim or issue, and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial. In Swain v Hillman, 'real' was held to mean realistic as opposed to fanciful. Unlike strike out, the court may consider the underlying evidence.
6On which of the following grounds may a court strike out a statement of case under CPR 3.4(2)?
A.That the opposing party has a stronger case on the evidence
B.That the claim is worth less than GBP 10,000
C.That the claimant has failed to obtain expert evidence
D.That the statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim
Explanation: Under CPR 3.4(2)(a) the court may strike out a statement of case that discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim; (b) covers an abuse of process or one likely to obstruct just disposal; and (c) covers a failure to comply with a rule, practice direction or court order. The strike-out test focuses on the statement of case itself, not on weighing the evidence.
7A defendant makes a Part 36 offer to settle the whole of a money claim. What is the minimum 'relevant period' that such an offer must specify (where it is not made within 21 days of trial)?
A.Not less than 7 days
B.Not less than 14 days
C.Not less than 21 days
D.Not less than 28 days
Explanation: Under CPR 36.5(1)(c), a Part 36 offer must specify a relevant period of not less than 21 days within which the defendant will be liable for the claimant's costs if the offer is accepted, unless the offer is made less than 21 days before the start of trial. The relevant period drives the costs consequences under Part 36.
8A claimant accepts a defendant's Part 36 offer after the relevant period has expired but the parties cannot agree on costs. What is the usual costs consequence under CPR 36.13?
A.The claimant recovers all of its costs to the date of acceptance
B.Each party bears its own costs throughout
C.The claimant recovers costs to the end of the relevant period and is liable for the defendant's costs from expiry of that period to acceptance, unless the court orders otherwise
D.The defendant pays the claimant's costs on the indemnity basis from the start of proceedings
Explanation: Under CPR 36.13(5), on late acceptance the usual order is that the claimant recovers its costs up to the end of the relevant period, and pays the offeror's costs from the expiry of the relevant period until acceptance, unless the court considers it unjust. The court determines liability for costs if not agreed.
9In standard disclosure under CPR 31.6 (applying in a multi-track case outside the disclosure pilot), which documents must a party disclose?
A.Documents on which the party relies, and documents which adversely affect its own or another party's case or support another party's case, plus those required by a relevant practice direction
B.Every document in the party's control, regardless of relevance
C.Only documents that support that party's own case
D.Only documents specifically requested by the opposing party
Explanation: Standard disclosure under CPR 31.6 requires a party to disclose the documents on which it relies, documents that adversely affect its own case, adversely affect or support another party's case, and any documents required to be disclosed by a relevant practice direction. The duty is limited to documents within the party's control under CPR 31.8.
10A party wishes to withhold a document from inspection on the basis that it is a confidential communication between the client and their solicitor created for the purpose of giving or receiving legal advice. Which form of privilege applies?
A.Legal advice privilege
B.Litigation privilege
C.Without prejudice privilege
D.Public interest immunity
Explanation: Legal advice privilege protects confidential communications between a lawyer and client made for the dominant purpose of giving or obtaining legal advice, whether or not litigation is contemplated. Litigation privilege, by contrast, requires that litigation be in reasonable contemplation and that the document be created for the dominant purpose of that litigation.
About the Bar Course Centralised Assessments Practice Questions
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