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100+ Free Bar Course Centralised Assessments Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Bar Course Centralised Assessments Exam

3 assessments

Civil & Criminal Litigation + Professional Ethics

Bar Standards Board

~75

Criminal Litigation MCQ/SBA Questions

Bar Standards Board

3 cycles

December, April, and August Sittings

Bar Standards Board

BSB standard

Competence-Based Pass Mark

Bar Standards Board

£13,000-£19,000

Typical Bar Course Tuition

Bar training providers (2026)

100+

Practice Questions Here

OpenExamPrep question bank

The Bar Course Centralised Assessments are the BSB-set knowledge exams on the vocational component of Bar training in England and Wales, replacing the old BPTC. They cover Civil Litigation, Criminal Litigation, and Professional Ethics. Civil Litigation is examined through MCQs and single-best-answer questions across a closed-book Paper 1 (about two hours) and an open-book Paper 2 (about two and a half hours); Criminal Litigation is a closed-book paper of roughly 75 MCQ and SBA questions over about three hours; Professional Ethics is a separate assessment normally taken during pupillage. For 2026 the Criminal Litigation syllabus tracks Blackstone's Criminal Practice 2026 and Civil Litigation tracks the White Book 2025/2026. Assessment cycles run in December, April, and August. The pass standard is a BSB-set competence threshold rather than a fixed percentage, and the BSB does not publish a single overall pass rate; candidates must hold a qualifying law degree or GDL/PgDL conversion and be enrolled with an Authorised Education and Training Organisation such as the ICCA, BPP, or City Law School.

Sample Bar Course Centralised Assessments Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Bar Course Centralised Assessments exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A claimant intends to issue a money claim for breach of a commercial contract. Before issuing proceedings, what does the Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols primarily require the parties to do?
A.File a claim form at court within 14 days of the dispute arising
B.Obtain the court's permission before sending any letter of claim
C.Exchange concise information about the claim and the response, and consider alternative dispute resolution, before issuing proceedings
D.Serve particulars of claim verified by a statement of truth on the proposed defendant
Explanation: The Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols requires parties to exchange sufficient information to understand each other's position, try to settle without proceedings, and consider a form of ADR. Litigation should be a last resort. Non-compliance can result in costs and other sanctions.
2Under the CPR, by when must a claim form be served on a defendant within the jurisdiction after it has been issued?
A.Within 28 days after the date of issue
B.Within 6 months after the date of issue
C.Within 14 days after the date of issue
D.Within 4 months after the date of issue
Explanation: CPR 7.5 requires a claim form to be served within 4 months after the date of issue where it is to be served within the jurisdiction. The relevant step (e.g. posting) must be completed before midnight on the calendar day four months after issue. The period is 6 months only where the claim form is served out of the jurisdiction.
3A defendant has been served with particulars of claim. To avoid default judgment, within what period must the defendant file an acknowledgment of service?
A.21 days after service of the particulars of claim
B.14 days after service of the particulars of claim
C.28 days after service of the particulars of claim
D.7 days after service of the particulars of claim
Explanation: Under CPR 10.3, a defendant must file an acknowledgment of service within 14 days after service of the particulars of claim. Filing an acknowledgment then extends the period for filing a defence to 28 days from service of the particulars of claim under CPR 15.4.
4A personal injury claim has a value of GBP 18,000 with the value of the pain, suffering and loss of amenity exceeding the small claims limit. Damages are likely to total around GBP 18,000. To which track is this claim most likely to be allocated?
A.Fast track
B.Small claims track
C.Intermediate track
D.Multi-track
Explanation: Under CPR 26, the fast track is the normal track for claims with a value between GBP 10,000 and GBP 25,000 where the trial is likely to last no longer than one day. A GBP 18,000 personal injury claim of ordinary complexity normally falls within the fast track. The intermediate track generally covers claims above GBP 25,000 up to GBP 100,000.
5A claimant applies for summary judgment against the defendant. What is the test the court applies under CPR Part 24?
A.Whether the defence is bound to be dismissed at trial beyond reasonable doubt
B.Whether the statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for defending the claim
C.Whether the defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue and there is no other compelling reason for a trial
D.Whether the defendant has acted in a manner likely to obstruct the just disposal of the proceedings
Explanation: Under CPR 24.3, the court may give summary judgment where a party has no real prospect of succeeding on or defending the claim or issue, and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial. In Swain v Hillman, 'real' was held to mean realistic as opposed to fanciful. Unlike strike out, the court may consider the underlying evidence.
6On which of the following grounds may a court strike out a statement of case under CPR 3.4(2)?
A.That the opposing party has a stronger case on the evidence
B.That the claim is worth less than GBP 10,000
C.That the claimant has failed to obtain expert evidence
D.That the statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim
Explanation: Under CPR 3.4(2)(a) the court may strike out a statement of case that discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim; (b) covers an abuse of process or one likely to obstruct just disposal; and (c) covers a failure to comply with a rule, practice direction or court order. The strike-out test focuses on the statement of case itself, not on weighing the evidence.
7A defendant makes a Part 36 offer to settle the whole of a money claim. What is the minimum 'relevant period' that such an offer must specify (where it is not made within 21 days of trial)?
A.Not less than 7 days
B.Not less than 14 days
C.Not less than 21 days
D.Not less than 28 days
Explanation: Under CPR 36.5(1)(c), a Part 36 offer must specify a relevant period of not less than 21 days within which the defendant will be liable for the claimant's costs if the offer is accepted, unless the offer is made less than 21 days before the start of trial. The relevant period drives the costs consequences under Part 36.
8A claimant accepts a defendant's Part 36 offer after the relevant period has expired but the parties cannot agree on costs. What is the usual costs consequence under CPR 36.13?
A.The claimant recovers all of its costs to the date of acceptance
B.Each party bears its own costs throughout
C.The claimant recovers costs to the end of the relevant period and is liable for the defendant's costs from expiry of that period to acceptance, unless the court orders otherwise
D.The defendant pays the claimant's costs on the indemnity basis from the start of proceedings
Explanation: Under CPR 36.13(5), on late acceptance the usual order is that the claimant recovers its costs up to the end of the relevant period, and pays the offeror's costs from the expiry of the relevant period until acceptance, unless the court considers it unjust. The court determines liability for costs if not agreed.
9In standard disclosure under CPR 31.6 (applying in a multi-track case outside the disclosure pilot), which documents must a party disclose?
A.Documents on which the party relies, and documents which adversely affect its own or another party's case or support another party's case, plus those required by a relevant practice direction
B.Every document in the party's control, regardless of relevance
C.Only documents that support that party's own case
D.Only documents specifically requested by the opposing party
Explanation: Standard disclosure under CPR 31.6 requires a party to disclose the documents on which it relies, documents that adversely affect its own case, adversely affect or support another party's case, and any documents required to be disclosed by a relevant practice direction. The duty is limited to documents within the party's control under CPR 31.8.
10A party wishes to withhold a document from inspection on the basis that it is a confidential communication between the client and their solicitor created for the purpose of giving or receiving legal advice. Which form of privilege applies?
A.Legal advice privilege
B.Litigation privilege
C.Without prejudice privilege
D.Public interest immunity
Explanation: Legal advice privilege protects confidential communications between a lawyer and client made for the dominant purpose of giving or obtaining legal advice, whether or not litigation is contemplated. Litigation privilege, by contrast, requires that litigation be in reasonable contemplation and that the document be created for the dominant purpose of that litigation.

About the Bar Course Centralised Assessments Exam

The Bar Course Centralised Assessments are the Bar Standards Board (BSB)-set knowledge exams that candidates must pass on the vocational component of Bar training in England and Wales, the stage that replaced the Bar Professional Training Course (BPTC). They consist of centrally set assessments in Civil Litigation and Criminal Litigation, examined largely through multiple-choice and single-best-answer (SBA) questions, together with a Professional Ethics assessment normally sat during pupillage. The Civil Litigation assessment is split into a closed-book Paper 1 and an open-book Paper 2, while the Criminal Litigation assessment is a closed-book paper of roughly 75 MCQ and SBA questions over about three hours. The assessments are delivered by Authorised Education and Training Organisations (AETOs) such as the ICCA, BPP, and City Law School, and are offered in December, April, and August cycles. Candidates must already hold a qualifying law degree or GDL/PgDL conversion and be enrolled on an authorised Bar training course.

Assessment

Question count not published by the exam provider

Time Limit

Civil ~2h + 2.5h papers; Criminal ~3h; Professional Ethics 3h

Passing Score

BSB-set competence standard (not a fixed percentage)

Exam Fee

Set by the Bar training provider (varies); the Bar Course typically costs £13,000-£19,000 (Bar Standards Board)

Bar Course Centralised Assessments Exam Content Outline

40%

Civil Litigation, Evidence & Remedies

Civil Procedure Rules (CPR) and the overriding objective, case management and the multi-track, pre-action conduct, statements of case, interim applications and injunctions, disclosure, evidence and witness statements, ADR, costs and Part 36 offers, appeals, and enforcement - examined via MCQs including single-best-answer questions across a closed-book Paper 1 and an open-book Paper 2 (White Book 2025/2026)

40%

Criminal Litigation, Evidence & Sentencing

Procedure in the magistrates' and Crown Courts, bail and remand, allocation and sending, disclosure, PACE 1984 evidence (confessions, bad character, hearsay), trial process and submissions of no case, sentencing principles and guidelines, and appeals - a closed-book paper of roughly 75 MCQ and SBA questions (Blackstone's Criminal Practice 2026)

20%

Professional Ethics for Barristers

The BSB Handbook and Code of Conduct, the ten Core Duties, the cab-rank rule, conflicts of interest, client confidentiality and legal professional privilege, the overriding duty to the court, independence and integrity, and regulatory obligations - assessed separately, normally during pupillage

How to Pass the Bar Course Centralised Assessments Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: BSB-set competence standard (not a fixed percentage)
  • Assessment: Question count not published by the exam provider
  • Time limit: Civil ~2h + 2.5h papers; Criminal ~3h; Professional Ethics 3h
  • Exam fee: Set by the Bar training provider (varies); the Bar Course typically costs £13,000-£19,000

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Bar Course Centralised Assessments Study Tips from Top Performers

1Treat Civil and Criminal Litigation as procedure-driven subjects: learn the CPR (White Book 2025/2026) and the criminal process (Blackstone's Criminal Practice 2026) as step-by-step sequences, because the MCQs reward knowing exactly what happens next and within what time limit
2For single-best-answer (SBA) questions, eliminate options that are merely arguable and choose the single most accurate answer - SBAs deliberately include plausible but inferior distractors
3Build a fast, well-tabbed index for the open-book Civil Litigation Paper 2; success on an open-book paper depends on locating the right rule quickly, not on reading the whole book during the exam
4Practise the closed-book Criminal Litigation paper under strict timing - roughly 75 questions in about three hours means you have only a few minutes per question, so accuracy at speed is essential
5Learn the BSB Handbook Core Duties and the cab-rank rule cold, then apply them to ethical scenarios; the Professional Ethics assessment tests applied judgment, not just recall of the rules
6Use full timed mock assessments for each subject to build exam stamina and pinpoint weak procedural areas before the December, April, or August sitting

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the Bar Course Centralised Assessments?

They are the Bar Standards Board (BSB)-set knowledge exams that candidates must pass on the vocational component of Bar training in England and Wales, the stage that replaced the Bar Professional Training Course (BPTC). The centralised assessments cover Civil Litigation and Criminal Litigation, examined largely through multiple-choice and single-best-answer questions, plus a Professional Ethics assessment normally sat during pupillage.

How are the Civil and Criminal Litigation assessments structured?

Civil Litigation is split into a closed-book Paper 1 (about two hours) and an open-book Paper 2 (about two and a half hours), both examined through MCQs that include single-best-answer (SBA) questions. Criminal Litigation is a single closed-book paper of roughly 75 MCQ and SBA questions sat over about three hours. The Professional Ethics assessment is taken separately, generally during pupillage.

What is the pass mark for the Bar Course assessments?

The assessments are marked against a BSB-set standard of competence rather than a single fixed percentage that applies across every paper and cycle. The Bar Standards Board sets the required standard centrally and does not publish a single overall pass rate, so candidates should confirm the current marking and pass-standard details through their training provider and the BSB Bar Qualification Manual.

How much does the Bar Course cost?

The centralised assessments are not billed separately by the BSB; their cost is included in the fee charged by your Authorised Education and Training Organisation (AETO). The Bar Course itself typically costs between £13,000 and £19,000 depending on the provider and location, with additional fees for Inn of Court membership and call to the Bar.

When can I sit the Bar Course Centralised Assessments?

The centralised assessments are offered in three cycles each year - December, April, and August - so candidates can choose a sitting that fits their study timetable. The Civil and Criminal Litigation assessments are normally sat during the vocational component, while the Professional Ethics assessment is usually taken later, during pupillage.

Who can take the Bar Course in England and Wales?

You must hold a qualifying law degree (LLB) or have completed a non-law degree plus a GDL/PgDL conversion course, and you must be enrolled on an authorised Bar training course delivered by an AETO such as the ICCA, BPP, or City Law School. You must also join one of the four Inns of Court before completing the vocational component on the route to call and pupillage.