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100+ Free SCE Geriatric Medicine Practice Questions

Pass your Specialty Certificate Examination in Geriatric Medicine exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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2025: 74.9% UK resident doctors; 60.2% all candidates Pass Rate
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An 83-year-old man has new iron deficiency anaemia and weight loss. He says he is too old for investigation. What is the best response?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: SCE Geriatric Medicine Exam

200

Official SCE questions across two papers

Federation SCE FAQ

6 hours

Testing time, plus a one-hour break

Federation SCE FAQ

21 Oct 2026

Next 2026 Geriatric Medicine SCE date after February diet

Federation exam dates and fees

1-29 Jul 2026

Application period for the October 2026 Geriatric Medicine diet

Federation exam dates and fees

GBP 700 / GBP 875

2026 UK and international SCE fees

Federation exam dates and fees

431

Published Geriatric Medicine SCE passing score from 2025 report

Geriatric Medicine 2025 results report

The SCE in Geriatric Medicine is a Federation/MRCP(UK) computer-based exam: two 3-hour papers, 100 best-of-five MCQs per paper, with a one-hour break. The 2026 Geriatric Medicine dates are 4 February 2026 and 21 October 2026; the October application window is 1 July to 29 July 2026. Official 2026 fees are GBP 700 in the UK and GBP 875 internationally. The latest Geriatric Medicine report gives a pass score of 431, equivalent to 62.1% or 123/198 in 2025, and 2025 pass rates of 74.9% for UK resident doctors and 60.2% for all candidates.

Sample SCE Geriatric Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your SCE Geriatric Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An 84-year-old has macrocytosis, glossitis, distal paraesthesia and an unsteady gait. Which investigation is most likely to confirm the reversible contributor to his neurological syndrome?
A.Serum vitamin B12 with intrinsic factor antibody testing
B.Serum ferritin alone
C.Haemoglobin electrophoresis
D.Direct antiglobulin test
Explanation: Macrocytosis plus posterior column symptoms is most consistent with vitamin B12 deficiency. Checking B12 and testing for pernicious anaemia with intrinsic factor antibodies addresses both diagnosis and cause. Neurological features may improve if treatment is started promptly, so this should not be dismissed as normal ageing.
2An 86-year-old reports dizziness on standing. Lying blood pressure is 162/84 mmHg and after three minutes standing it is 126/70 mmHg with reproduction of symptoms. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
A.Review hypotensive medicines, hydration and standing technique
B.Start a beta blocker for isolated systolic hypertension
C.Refer directly for carotid endarterectomy
D.Advise strict bed rest to prevent collapse
Explanation: This is symptomatic orthostatic hypotension, defined by a sustained fall in systolic pressure of at least 20 mmHg or diastolic pressure of at least 10 mmHg after standing. Initial management is medication review, correcting dehydration, slow postural changes and compression or counter-manoeuvres when suitable. Treating the patient in front of you matters more than the isolated lying reading.
3An 82-year-old with atrial fibrillation, hypertension and previous TIA is independent with a Clinical Frailty Scale score of 3. Her HAS-BLED score is 2. What is the best stroke-prevention approach?
A.Offer oral anticoagulation after shared decision making
B.Use aspirin because she is older than 80 years
C.Avoid anticoagulation because fall risk always outweighs benefit
D.Use no treatment unless she develops persistent symptoms
Explanation: Age alone is not a reason to withhold anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation. With previous TIA and hypertension, her embolic stroke risk is high and oral anticoagulation should usually be offered after discussing bleeding risk, renal function, adherence and preferences. Falls risk should be addressed but rarely negates the stroke-prevention benefit by itself.
4A 90-year-old with heart failure, eGFR 34 mL/min/1.73 m2 and postural symptoms is discharged on furosemide, ramipril, bisoprolol and spironolactone. Which monitoring plan is most important after the medicine changes?
A.Check renal function, potassium, blood pressure and volume status soon after discharge
B.No monitoring is needed if the discharge letter lists the medicines
C.Stop all heart failure medicines because she is over 85
D.Measure only serum cholesterol at six weeks
Explanation: Older people are vulnerable to AKI, hyperkalaemia, hypotension and dehydration after heart failure medicine changes. Early monitoring of renal function, electrolytes, blood pressure, weight and symptoms allows titration without preventable harm. The goal is balanced optimisation, not age-based therapeutic nihilism.
5An older man has exertional syncope, a slow-rising pulse and a loud ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Which diagnosis should be prioritised?
A.Severe aortic stenosis
B.Vasovagal syncope alone
C.Benign flow murmur
D.Carotid sinus hypersensitivity as the only diagnosis
Explanation: Exertional syncope with a slow-rising pulse and an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids strongly suggests severe aortic stenosis. This is high risk and warrants echocardiography and specialist valve assessment. Labelling exertional syncope as benign without assessing structural heart disease is unsafe.
6An immobile 88-year-old has erythema over the sacrum that does not blanch with pressure but the skin is intact. What is the best description?
A.Category 1 pressure injury
B.Moisture-associated skin damage only
C.Category 3 pressure injury
D.Cellulitis requiring immediate IV antibiotics
Explanation: Non-blanching erythema over a pressure area with intact skin is a category 1 pressure injury. It should trigger pressure relief, repositioning, nutrition review and continence or moisture management. Early recognition prevents deeper tissue damage.
7A frail 87-year-old care home resident with type 2 diabetes, recurrent falls and limited life expectancy has HbA1c 49 mmol/mol on gliclazide. What is the best prescribing response?
A.De-intensify sulfonylurea therapy to reduce hypoglycaemia risk
B.Increase gliclazide because the HbA1c is not below 42 mmol/mol
C.Add prandial insulin to prevent macrovascular disease
D.Ignore glycaemic treatment because diabetes does not matter in frailty
Explanation: In frail older adults, the priority is avoiding symptomatic hyperglycaemia and treatment harm, especially hypoglycaemia from sulfonylureas or insulin. An HbA1c of 49 mmol/mol is tight for this context, so de-intensification is reasonable. Targets should be individualised around function, comorbidity and goals of care.
8An older inpatient becomes acutely confused after several days of poor intake. Sodium is 122 mmol/L and serum osmolality is low. Which immediate principle is most important?
A.Assess volume status, symptoms and medicine causes before choosing correction strategy
B.Correct sodium rapidly to normal within six hours
C.Give desmopressin to every patient with hyponatraemia
D.Assume all hyponatraemia in older people is due to SIADH
Explanation: Hyponatraemia management depends on severity of symptoms, chronicity, volume status and cause. Older people often have multifactorial hyponatraemia from diuretics, poor intake, infection, heart failure or SIADH. Over-rapid correction risks osmotic demyelination, so the diagnostic and treatment plan must be deliberate.
9An 89-year-old on opioids for vertebral fracture pain has abdominal discomfort, overflow diarrhoea and a palpable rectal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Faecal impaction with overflow
B.Infective gastroenteritis
C.Inflammatory bowel disease flare
D.Bile acid malabsorption
Explanation: Overflow diarrhoea in an older person with opioid exposure and a rectal mass is faecal impaction until proven otherwise. Rectal examination is essential because stool may leak around the impaction. Management includes disimpaction, laxative regimen review, hydration and addressing opioid-induced constipation.
10A patient with Parkinson disease coughs during meals and has recurrent right lower lobe pneumonias. Which assessment is most appropriate before changing diet texture?
A.Speech and language therapy swallowing assessment
B.Routine colonoscopy
C.Carotid Doppler ultrasound
D.Serum amylase measurement
Explanation: Coughing with meals and recurrent pneumonia suggest oropharyngeal dysphagia with aspiration risk. Speech and language therapy assessment guides safe oral intake, compensatory strategies and decisions about instrumental swallowing studies. Diet changes without assessment can worsen hydration, nutrition and quality of life.

About the SCE Geriatric Medicine Exam

The Specialty Certificate Examination in Geriatric Medicine is the UK Federation knowledge-based assessment for physicians demonstrating specialty knowledge to the standard expected of UK specialist trainees. The official SCE format is computer-based, with two papers taken on one day, each lasting 3 hours and containing 100 best-of-five multiple-choice questions, separated by a one-hour break. The Geriatric Medicine specialty page states that the exam covers the JRCPTB specialty curriculum through a predetermined blueprint and is delivered every nine months. The 2026 Geriatric Medicine diets are 4 February 2026 and 21 October 2026, with the October 2026 application period from 1 July to 29 July 2026. From June 2026 all UK and International SCEs are delivered in centre; sessions before that date continued by remote online proctoring during the transition.

Assessment

Computer-based SCE with Paper 1 in the morning and Paper 2 in the afternoon; each paper has 100 best-of-five MCQs. From June 2026, all UK and International SCEs are delivered in centre; sessions before June 2026 used remote online proctoring for consistency during transition.

Time Limit

6 hours testing time plus one-hour break (two 3-hour papers)

Passing Score

431 scaled score from the 2025 Geriatric Medicine report; 2025 equivalent was 62.1% or 123/198 until the board next reviews standards

Exam Fee

GBP 700 UK; GBP 875 International (The Federation of the Royal Colleges of Physicians of the UK / MRCP(UK))

SCE Geriatric Medicine Exam Content Outline

1%

Anaemia and Haematology

Blueprint allocation: 2 of 200 questions. Anaemia patterns, haematinic deficiency, anticoagulation complications and haematological presentations in older people.

3.5%

Cardiovascular Medicine

Blueprint allocation: 7 of 200 questions. Syncope, atrial fibrillation, heart failure, valvular disease, orthostatic hypotension and cardiovascular risk decisions.

1%

Dermatology

Blueprint allocation: 2 of 200 questions. Skin disease in older people, pressure-related skin change and dermatological mimics.

2.5%

Endocrine Medicine

Blueprint allocation: 5 of 200 questions. Diabetes in frailty, hypoglycaemia, thyroid disease, hyponatraemia and endocrine presentations in older adults.

3%

Gastroenterology

Blueprint allocation: 6 of 200 questions. Constipation, dysphagia, aspiration risk, GI bleeding, liver disease and nutrition-related GI presentations.

3.5%

Infection

Blueprint allocation: 7 of 200 questions. Atypical infection presentations, pneumonia, UTI stewardship, sepsis, antimicrobial risk and care home infection decisions.

3%

Musculoskeletal Medicine

Blueprint allocation: 6 of 200 questions. Osteoarthritis, inflammatory syndromes, crystal arthritis, pain management and mobility-limiting conditions.

5%

Neurology

Blueprint allocation: 10 of 200 questions. Parkinson disease, tremor, epilepsy, neuropathy, gait disorders and normal pressure hydrocephalus.

2.5%

Renal Medicine and Fluid or Electrolyte Imbalance

Blueprint allocation: 5 of 200 questions. AKI, CKD prescribing, electrolyte disturbance, dehydration and renal-aware symptom control.

3.5%

Respiratory Medicine

Blueprint allocation: 7 of 200 questions. COPD, controlled oxygen, NIV, aspiration, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism and respiratory failure.

2%

Sensory Impairment

Blueprint allocation: 4 of 200 questions. Hearing, vision, communication, hallucinations from visual impairment and sensory contributors to delirium.

4%

Basic Science

Blueprint allocation: 8 of 200 questions. Biology of ageing, frailty, sarcopenia, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics and physiological reserve.

3%

Geriatric Assessment and Management

Blueprint allocation: 6 of 200 questions. Comprehensive geriatric assessment, frailty scoring, goal setting and patient-centred management.

7%

Rehabilitation and Multidisciplinary Teamworking

Blueprint allocation: 14 of 200 questions. Rehabilitation potential, MDT roles, goal setting, early mobilisation and functional recovery.

4.5%

Transfer of Care and Community Practice

Blueprint allocation: 9 of 200 questions. Discharge to assess, intermediate care, community geriatric medicine, medicines handover and care planning.

8%

Falls and Poor Mobility

Blueprint allocation: 16 of 200 questions. Multifactorial falls assessment, syncope, postural hypotension, vestibular disorders, fear of falling and gait impairment.

10%

Cognitive Issues: Delirium and Dementia

Blueprint allocation: 20 of 200 questions. Delirium, dementia subtypes, capacity, behavioural symptoms, cognitive assessment and post-discharge follow-up.

3.5%

Old Age Psychiatry

Blueprint allocation: 7 of 200 questions. Depression, suicide risk, alcohol use, insomnia, late-onset psychosis and psychiatric differentials.

5%

Urogenital Issues Including Continence

Blueprint allocation: 10 of 200 questions. Urinary and faecal incontinence, retention, nocturia, catheter harms and continence service reasoning.

5%

Orthogeriatrics and Osteoporosis

Blueprint allocation: 10 of 200 questions. Hip fracture, perioperative care, analgesia, fragility fracture prevention and bone health treatment.

3%

Surgical Liaison

Blueprint allocation: 6 of 200 questions. Frailty-informed surgery decisions, perioperative risk, postoperative delirium and geriatric liaison with surgical teams.

4.5%

Palliative Care

Blueprint allocation: 9 of 200 questions. Symptom control, treatment escalation, DNACPR, advanced dementia, renal-aware opioids and end-of-life care.

2%

Nutrition

Blueprint allocation: 4 of 200 questions. Malnutrition screening, refeeding syndrome, dietetic assessment and nutritional rehabilitation.

2.5%

Tissue Viability

Blueprint allocation: 5 of 200 questions. Pressure injury staging, offloading, wound care, moisture, nutrition and pain control.

7.5%

Stroke Care

Blueprint allocation: 15 of 200 questions. Hyperacute stroke, thrombectomy, TIA, carotid disease, dysphagia, secondary prevention and rehabilitation.

How to Pass the SCE Geriatric Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 431 scaled score from the 2025 Geriatric Medicine report; 2025 equivalent was 62.1% or 123/198 until the board next reviews standards
  • Assessment: Computer-based SCE with Paper 1 in the morning and Paper 2 in the afternoon; each paper has 100 best-of-five MCQs. From June 2026, all UK and International SCEs are delivered in centre; sessions before June 2026 used remote online proctoring for consistency during transition.
  • Time limit: 6 hours testing time plus one-hour break (two 3-hour papers)
  • Exam fee: GBP 700 UK; GBP 875 International

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

SCE Geriatric Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use the official 200-question blueprint as the revision checklist and weight timed question practice toward cognitive issues, falls, stroke and rehabilitation.
2Revise geriatric syndromes as clinical reasoning problems: frailty, delirium, falls, incontinence, immobility, pressure injury, nutrition and polypharmacy commonly interact.
3Practise consultant-level decisions that combine physiology, baseline function, capacity, patient goals, MDT evidence and safe transfer of care.
4For acute care questions, look for atypical presentations in older adults: delirium, falls, reduced mobility, anorexia, hypothermia and functional decline.
5For medication questions, actively consider renal function, anticholinergic burden, sedatives, opioids, anticoagulation and deprescribing trade-offs.
6For stroke and orthogeriatrics, revise time-critical pathways while also thinking about frailty, dysphagia, analgesia, delirium prevention and rehabilitation.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the SCE in Geriatric Medicine?

It is the Federation Specialty Certificate Examination in Geriatric Medicine. The exam demonstrates specialty knowledge to the standard required of UK specialist trainees and successful candidates may use the post-nominal SCE (Geriatric Medicine).

What is the SCE Geriatric Medicine exam format?

The official SCE format is computer-based and consists of two papers on one day. Paper 1 is taken in the morning and Paper 2 in the afternoon; each paper is 3 hours and contains 100 best-of-five MCQs, with a one-hour break between papers.

When is the 2026 SCE in Geriatric Medicine?

The official 2026 Geriatric Medicine dates are 4 February 2026 and 21 October 2026. The October 2026 application period is 1 July to 29 July 2026, with applications opening and closing at 8:00am UK local time.

How much does the SCE in Geriatric Medicine cost in 2026?

The official SCE fees page lists GBP 700 for UK centres and GBP 875 for international centres. Transfers from UK to international locations are liable for the GBP 175 difference.

What pass mark and pass rate are published for Geriatric Medicine?

The 2025 Geriatric Medicine selected metrics report states that the passing score was changed to 431 and that the 2025 equivalent was 62.1% or 123/198. The same report and pass-rates page list 2025 pass rates of 74.9% for UK resident doctors and 60.2% for all candidates.

Who is eligible to sit the exam?

The Geriatric Medicine SCE page states there are no entry requirements for the SCE in Geriatric Medicine, although UK trainees normally take it during higher specialty training. The SCE FAQ states candidates must hold an MD or MBBS before attempting an SCE.