All Practice Exams

100+ Free Acute Medicine SCE Practice Questions

Pass your Specialty Certificate Examination in Acute Medicine exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
47.8% all candidates; 69.8% UK resident doctors Pass Rate
100+ Questions
100% Free
1 / 100
Question 1
Score: 0/0

A patient with fever, back pain and new murmur has three sets of blood cultures growing Staphylococcus aureus. What complication should be actively sought?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Acute Medicine SCE Exam

200

best-of-five MCQs in the official exam

Federation SCE FAQs and SAM SCE page

16 September 2026

2026/01 Acute Medicine SCE exam date

Federation Acute Medicine page

27 May-24 June 2026

2026/01 application period

Federation exam dates and fees

GBP 700

2026 UK-centre fee

Federation exam dates and fees

460

current passing score until next standards review

Federation Acute Medicine SCE 2025 metrics report

47.8%

2025 all-candidate pass rate

Federation Acute Medicine SCE 2025 metrics report

The mapped official credential for this source ID is the Specialty Certificate Examination in Acute Medicine, not a separately verified SAS Doctor Diploma or DACP. The Federation lists the 2026/01 Acute Medicine SCE date as 16 September 2026 with applications from 27 May to 24 June 2026. SAM and the Federation describe the format as two 3-hour papers, each containing 100 best-of-five questions. The published 2026 SCE fee is GBP 700 for UK centres and GBP 875 for international centres. The Federation 2025 Acute Medicine metrics report states that the pass score was changed to 460 and will be used for future examinations until the next standards review; it also reports a 2025 pass rate of 47.8% for all candidates and 69.8% for UK resident doctors.

Sample Acute Medicine SCE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Acute Medicine SCE exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A patient receiving chemotherapy presents with temperature 38.4 C, rigors and neutrophils 0.3 x 10^9/L. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A.Give broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics within 1 hour after blood cultures if this does not delay treatment
B.Wait for the blood culture result before starting antibiotics
C.Give oral antibiotics and discharge if the patient looks well
D.Arrange oncology clinic review within 48 hours
Explanation: Neutropenic sepsis is a time-critical emergency. Cultures should be taken promptly, but empirical IV antibiotics should not be delayed.
2A 70-year-old with metastatic prostate cancer develops new severe thoracic back pain, bilateral leg weakness and urinary retention. What is the key next step?
A.Start simple analgesia and arrange routine outpatient MRI
B.Treat as suspected metastatic spinal cord compression with urgent MRI and immediate corticosteroid discussion
C.Request lumbar puncture to exclude infection first
D.Reassure because urinary retention is common with opioids
Explanation: New neurological deficit with cancer and back pain is metastatic spinal cord compression until proven otherwise and needs urgent imaging and treatment planning.
3A patient with aggressive lymphoma develops rising potassium, phosphate and urate after starting chemotherapy. Which diagnosis best explains this pattern?
A.Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
B.Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
C.Tumour lysis syndrome
D.Adrenal crisis
Explanation: Tumour lysis causes rapid release of intracellular potassium, phosphate and nucleic acid metabolites, producing hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, hyperuricaemia and AKI risk.
4A patient with sickle cell disease presents with fever, hypoxia, chest pain and a new pulmonary infiltrate. What is the best working diagnosis?
A.Uncomplicated painful crisis suitable for oral analgesia alone
B.Pulmonary oedema from chronic heart failure
C.Viral pleurisy with no need for admission
D.Acute chest syndrome requiring oxygen, antibiotics, analgesia and haematology escalation
Explanation: Acute chest syndrome is defined by new respiratory symptoms or hypoxia with a new infiltrate and can deteriorate rapidly.
5A frail patient with advanced cancer is dying despite treatment and has noisy respiratory secretions causing family distress. Which prescribing approach is most appropriate?
A.Use anticipatory end-of-life medicines with explanation that secretion treatment may reduce noise but not restore swallowing
B.Start intravenous fluids because secretions prove dehydration
C.Prescribe high-dose antibiotics as the default intervention
D.Avoid discussing dying because it may remove hope
Explanation: Good acute medicine includes recognition of dying, communication, anticipatory prescribing and realistic explanation of symptom goals.
6A septic patient remains hypotensive after 30 mL/kg crystalloid, has lactate 5.2 mmol/L and reduced urine output. What is the most appropriate escalation?
A.Repeat fluid boluses indefinitely on the ward
B.Call critical care early for vasopressor and source-control planning
C.Wait until blood cultures are positive
D.Treat the lactate as unreliable and review tomorrow
Explanation: Persistent shock after initial resuscitation with high lactate needs senior review, vasopressor consideration and urgent source control.
7During cardiac arrest the monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. What is the correct immediate ALS action?
A.Give atropine before rhythm treatment
B.Check a pulse for 30 seconds before every shock
C.Deliver an unsynchronised shock and resume CPR immediately
D.Synchronise cardioversion to the R wave
Explanation: VF is a shockable cardiac arrest rhythm. Defibrillation should be followed by immediate CPR with minimal interruption.
8A patient with anaphylaxis has wheeze, hypotension and lip swelling after IV antibiotic administration. What is first-line drug treatment?
A.Intravenous chlorphenamine as sole first-line treatment
B.Nebulised salbutamol alone
C.Oral prednisolone and observation
D.Intramuscular adrenaline into the anterolateral thigh
Explanation: Airway, breathing or circulation features of anaphylaxis require immediate IM adrenaline. Antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts, not first-line lifesaving treatment.
9An acutely unwell patient has cold peripheries, blood pressure 82/48 mmHg, JVP elevation and pulmonary oedema after myocardial infarction. What shock type is most likely?
A.Cardiogenic shock
B.Distributive septic shock
C.Hypovolaemic shock
D.Obstructive shock from tension pneumothorax
Explanation: Hypotension with pulmonary oedema and raised venous pressure after MI is typical of pump failure causing cardiogenic shock.
10A patient on the acute medical unit has oxygen saturation 86%, tracheal deviation away from a silent hemithorax and severe hypotension. What is the priority?
A.Wait for CT chest to confirm the diagnosis
B.Immediate decompression for suspected tension pneumothorax
C.Start non-invasive ventilation before decompression
D.Give oral analgesia and repeat observations in 1 hour
Explanation: Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis in an unstable patient and must be decompressed immediately.

About the Acute Medicine SCE Exam

The Specialty Certificate Examination in Acute Medicine is the Federation SCE for acute internal medicine physicians and equivalent candidates. The source row names a SAS Doctor Diploma in Acute Medicine (DACP), but official Federation and SAM sources verify the current practice-question credential as the SCE in Acute Medicine. The official exam has 200 best-of-five questions across two 3-hour papers, with blueprint coverage spanning acute medical unit emergencies, cardiovascular medicine, gastroenterology, endocrine, infection, older-person medicine, neurology, renal, respiratory, pharmacology, palliative care and governance.

Assessment

Two papers, each with 100 best-of-five multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

Two 3-hour papers with a one-hour break

Passing Score

460, applied to future Acute Medicine SCE examinations until the next standards review by the SCE Acute Medicine Examination Board

Exam Fee

GBP 700 UK centre fee for 2026; GBP 875 international centre fee (Federation of Royal Colleges of Physicians of the UK)

Acute Medicine SCE Exam Content Outline

10/200

Cancer, Palliative Care and Haematology

Cancer emergencies, metastatic complications, palliative care, transfusion, thrombosis, cytopenias and haematological presentations in acute medicine.

10/200

Cardiorespiratory Arrest, Shock and Critical Care

ALS principles, shock states, sepsis physiology, anaphylaxis, respiratory failure, emergency escalation and critical care interface.

20/200

Cardiovascular Medicine

ACS, arrhythmias, heart failure, valvular disease, pericardial disease, endocarditis, aortic syndromes and cardiovascular risk decisions.

10/200

Clinical Pharmacology and Poisoning

Therapeutics, prescribing safety, overdose, drug interactions, anticoagulant reversal, toxidromes and medicines governance.

14/200

Diabetes and Endocrine Medicine

DKA, HHS, adrenal crisis, thyroid emergencies, calcium disorders, hyponatraemia and inpatient endocrine risk.

20/200

Gastroenterology and Hepatology

GI bleeding, acute liver failure, cirrhosis complications, pancreatitis, IBD flares, biliary sepsis, diarrhoeal disease and obstruction.

14/200

Infectious Diseases

Sepsis, meningitis, pneumonia, TB, tropical fever, skin and soft-tissue infection, urinary infection and antimicrobial stewardship.

18/200

Medicine in the Elderly

Delirium, falls, frailty, polypharmacy, capacity, Parkinson disease, dehydration, occult fracture and geriatric risk assessment.

12/200

Musculoskeletal System

Hot swollen joint, vasculitis, gout, back-pain red flags, rheumatology medicines and inflammatory syndromes.

20/200

Neurology and Ophthalmology

Stroke, seizures, headache emergencies, neuromuscular weakness, red eye, transient visual loss and central vertigo.

10/200

Renal Medicine

AKI, hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, dialysis indications, glomerulonephritis and renal prescribing implications.

20/200

Respiratory Medicine

COPD, asthma, pulmonary embolism, pneumothorax, oxygen prescribing, infection, pleural disease, lung cancer and interstitial lung disease.

22/200

Other Acute Medicine

Patient safety, communication, safeguarding, consent, procedural risk, toxicology overlap, discharge advice and acute service governance.

How to Pass the Acute Medicine SCE Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 460, applied to future Acute Medicine SCE examinations until the next standards review by the SCE Acute Medicine Examination Board
  • Assessment: Two papers, each with 100 best-of-five multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: Two 3-hour papers with a one-hour break
  • Exam fee: GBP 700 UK centre fee for 2026; GBP 875 international centre fee

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Acute Medicine SCE Study Tips from Top Performers

1Start with the official Acute Medicine SCE blueprint and allocate revision time by the 200-question topic weights.
2Practise early AMU decisions: unstable physiology, escalation, differential diagnosis, first investigations and immediate treatment.
3Use current UK guidance for sepsis, oxygen, ACS, PE, DKA, HHS, GI bleeding, liver failure, AKI, delirium and capacity.
4Review medicines that commonly cause acute admissions: anticoagulants, insulin, opioids, lithium, steroids, QT-prolonging drugs and toxic ingestions.
5Finish with timed mixed best-of-five sets, because the exam tests cross-specialty prioritisation rather than isolated factual recall.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Acute Medicine SCE format?

The Federation SCE FAQ states that SCEs have two computer-based papers. Each paper contains 100 best-of-five questions, lasts 3 hours, and is separated by a one-hour break.

When is the 2026 Acute Medicine SCE?

The Federation Acute Medicine page and exam dates page list the 2026/01 Acute Medicine SCE exam date as 16 September 2026, with applications open from 27 May to 24 June 2026.

How much is the Acute Medicine SCE in 2026?

The Federation exam dates and fees page lists 2026 SCE fees as GBP 700 for UK centres and GBP 875 for international centres.

Is there a separate DACP or SAS Doctor Diploma exam?

Official Federation and Society for Acute Medicine pages verified the SCE in Acute Medicine. They did not verify a separate current SAS Doctor Diploma in Acute Medicine or DACP examination with its own public format, fee and registration pathway.

What passing score is currently published?

The Federation Acute Medicine SCE 2025 metrics report states that the pass score was decreased to 460 and will be used for future examinations until the SCE Acute Medicine Examination Board next reviews standards.