100+ Free MRCOG Part 3 Practice Questions

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A subfertility station involves a man with a semen analysis showing azoospermia confirmed on two samples. What is the most appropriate next step in the information-gathering domain?

Advise the couple that pregnancy is impossible

Refer for specialist assessment including hormonal profile and karyotype/cystic fibrosis screening to determine cause

Recommend immediate IVF without further investigation

Reassure that it will resolve spontaneously

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Sample MRCOG Part 3 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your MRCOG Part 3 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 32-year-old woman attends a structured discussion station at 12 weeks gestation. Her booking blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg and she has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus. According to NICE NG133, which intervention reduces her risk of pre-eclampsia and should be recommended?

A.Aspirin 75-150 mg daily from 12 weeks until birth

B.Low molecular weight heparin from booking

C.Calcium 1 g daily only in the third trimester

D.Labetalol prophylaxis from the second trimester

Explanation: NICE NG133 recommends aspirin 75-150 mg daily from 12 weeks until birth for women with a high-risk factor for pre-eclampsia. SLE is a recognised high-risk factor, so a single high-risk factor justifies aspirin prophylaxis.

2In a simulated patient task you counsel a 28-year-old at 28 weeks with reduced fetal movements. Initial CTG is normal but she remains anxious. Which is the most appropriate next step according to RCOG Green-top Guideline 57?

A.Reassure and discharge with no follow-up

B.Arrange ultrasound assessment of growth and amniotic fluid if RFM is recurrent or risk factors are present

C.Recommend immediate induction of labour

D.Start corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity

Explanation: GTG 57 advises that after a normal CTG, ultrasound assessment of growth, liquor volume and umbilical artery Doppler should be considered when there are recurrent episodes of reduced fetal movements or additional risk factors for stillbirth. This balances reassurance with appropriate surveillance.

3A primigravida at 39 weeks is in established labour. The CTG shows a baseline of 145 bpm, reduced variability for 50 minutes and variable decelerations with no shouldering. Using the applied clinical knowledge domain, how should this CTG be classified per NICE NG229?

A.Normal

B.Suspicious (one non-reassuring feature)

C.Pathological (one abnormal or two non-reassuring features)

D.Need for urgent intervention

Explanation: Reduced variability persisting beyond 30 minutes and variable decelerations without reassuring features are both non-reassuring; two non-reassuring features classify the trace as pathological under NICE NG229. This prompts conservative measures and consideration of fetal blood sampling or escalation.

4During a structured discussion on postpartum haemorrhage, you are asked the first-line uterotonic for atonic PPH in a woman with no contraindications. Which agent is correct?

A.Intramuscular carboprost (Hemabate)

B.Oral misoprostol 800 micrograms

C.Intravenous tranexamic acid alone

D.Intravenous oxytocin (Syntocinon) as a bolus then infusion

Explanation: For atonic PPH, oxytocin is the first-line uterotonic, given as a slow IV bolus followed by an infusion to maintain uterine tone. Second-line agents (ergometrine, carboprost, misoprostol) follow if bleeding continues.

5A simulated patient asks about screening for Down syndrome at her booking visit at 11 weeks. Which test does the NHS Fetal Anomaly Screening Programme offer as the combined test?

A.Nuchal translucency, free beta-hCG and PAPP-A with maternal age

B.Cell-free DNA as the first-line universal screen

C.Triple test (AFP, hCG, unconjugated oestriol)

D.Anomaly ultrasound at 20 weeks

Explanation: The combined test offered between 11+2 and 14+1 weeks uses nuchal translucency measurement, serum free beta-hCG and PAPP-A combined with maternal age to estimate the chance of trisomy 21, 18 and 13. A higher-chance result leads to an offer of further testing.

6In a station assessing the management of delivery domain, you encounter shoulder dystocia after delivery of the head. After calling for help, what is the recommended first manoeuvre?

A.Immediate symphysiotomy

B.McRoberts manoeuvre with hyperflexion of the maternal hips

C.Zavanelli manoeuvre (cephalic replacement)

D.Fundal pressure to expedite delivery

Explanation: RCOG GTG 42 recommends the McRoberts manoeuvre (hyperflexion and abduction of the maternal hips) as the first-line intervention because it is simple, rapid and effective, resolving the majority of cases. Suprapubic pressure is then added if needed.

7A 45-year-old presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a normal pelvic examination, no structural cause on ultrasound. She has completed her family. In counselling her about first-line management per NICE NG88, which option is recommended first?

A.Endometrial ablation as first-line

B.Total abdominal hysterectomy

C.Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)

D.GnRH analogues long term

Explanation: NICE NG88 recommends the LNG-IUS as the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding where there is no or only small structural abnormality, provided long-term use (at least 12 months) is acceptable. It is effective, reversible and avoids surgery.

8You are running a structured discussion on early pregnancy. A woman presents at 6 weeks with a positive pregnancy test, a 24 mm crown-rump length and no fetal heartbeat on transvaginal ultrasound. What is the correct interpretation per NICE NG126?

A.Viable intrauterine pregnancy

B.Pregnancy of unknown location requiring serial hCG

C.Ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise

D.Miscarriage can be diagnosed as CRL is 7 mm or more with no heartbeat

Explanation: NICE NG126 states that with a crown-rump length of 7 mm or more and no visible heartbeat, a second opinion or repeat scan in 7 days is advised before confirming, but a CRL of 24 mm with no heartbeat is diagnostic of miscarriage. The threshold for needing no heartbeat to diagnose miscarriage is a CRL of 7 mm or more.

9In a simulated colleague task, a junior doctor asks how to manage a woman at 34 weeks with confirmed preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PPROM) who is afebrile. Per RCOG GTG 73, which intervention is recommended?

A.Erythromycin 250 mg four times daily for 10 days or until labour

B.Co-amoxiclav prophylaxis

C.Immediate delivery regardless of fetal status

D.Tocolysis for 48 hours

Explanation: RCOG GTG 73 recommends erythromycin 250 mg four times daily for 10 days (or until labour) after PPROM to prolong pregnancy and reduce neonatal morbidity. Antenatal corticosteroids should also be offered.

10A patient with a previous lower-segment caesarean section is counselled about vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC). In the information-gathering domain, what is the approximate risk of uterine rupture during a planned VBAC quoted by RCOG GTG 45?

A.Approximately 5% (1 in 20)

B.Approximately 0.5% (1 in 200)

C.Approximately 0.05% (1 in 2000)

D.Approximately 10% (1 in 10)

Explanation: RCOG GTG 45 quotes a uterine rupture risk of approximately 0.5% (around 1 in 200) for women undergoing planned VBAC after one previous lower-segment caesarean. Accurate quoting of this figure is important for informed consent.

About the MRCOG Part 3 Exam

The MRCOG Part 3 is the clinical assessment of the RCOG's specialty training examination in obstetrics and gynaecology. It is a 14-station OSCE in which candidates interact with trained role players and examiners across simulated patient tasks and structured discussions, assessing applied clinical knowledge, communication, information gathering and patient safety.

Assessment

A 14-station OSCE circuit; each task maps to a curriculum module and assesses 3-4 of the 5 domains, with around 8 simulated patient/colleague tasks and 6 structured discussions.

Time Limit

12 minutes per station (including 2 minutes' reading), approximately 168 minutes in total.

Passing Score

No fixed numeric pass mark is published; the standard is set per circuit using Ebel's method based on a borderline candidate.

Exam Fee

2026: GBP 620 (UK & ROI), GBP 994 (Band A), GBP 927 (Band B), GBP 680 (Band C), determined by test centre. (Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG))

MRCOG Part 3 Exam Content Outline

30%

Applied clinical knowledge

Up-to-date O&G clinical knowledge applied to scenarios, using NICE, RCOG Green-top Guidelines and FSRH/BASHH guidance across antenatal, labour, gynaecology, oncology and urogynaecology modules.

25%

Communication with patients and their relatives

Breaking bad news, consent (Montgomery), shared decision-making and sensitive counselling with simulated patients.

15%

Information gathering

Structured history-taking, eliciting and prioritising clinical information and concerns.

15%

Communication with colleagues

Safe handover with SBAR, referrals, teaching skills and interprofessional teamwork.

15%

Patient safety

Recognising deterioration (MEOWS), escalation, duty of candour, incident reporting and safe systems of care.

How to Pass the MRCOG Part 3 Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: No fixed numeric pass mark is published; the standard is set per circuit using Ebel's method based on a borderline candidate.
Assessment: A 14-station OSCE circuit; each task maps to a curriculum module and assesses 3-4 of the 5 domains, with around 8 simulated patient/colleague tasks and 6 structured discussions.
Time limit: 12 minutes per station (including 2 minutes' reading), approximately 168 minutes in total.
Exam fee: 2026: GBP 620 (UK & ROI), GBP 994 (Band A), GBP 927 (Band B), GBP 680 (Band C), determined by test centre.

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

MRCOG Part 3 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Practise spoken consultations under timed conditions with a partner playing the patient or colleague, since the exam is an interactive OSCE rather than a written test.

2Map your revision to the five domains and the 14 curriculum modules, and anchor clinical answers to current NICE, RCOG Green-top, FSRH and BASHH guidance.

3Rehearse structured communication tools (SPIKES for bad news, SBAR for handover) and ethical or consent scenarios, as these recur across simulated patient and colleague stations.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many stations are in the MRCOG Part 3 exam?

There are 14 stations (tasks) in a circuit, each lasting 12 minutes (including 2 minutes' reading time), giving a total of approximately 168 minutes. Each station maps to a curriculum module and assesses 3-4 of the 5 domains.

What are the five domains assessed in MRCOG Part 3?

The five domains are: patient safety; communication with patients and their relatives; communication with colleagues; information gathering; and applied clinical knowledge. Each task assesses three to four of these to reflect real clinical practice.

How much does the MRCOG Part 3 cost in 2026?

In 2026 the fee is GBP 620 for UK and Republic of Ireland centres, with banded international fees of GBP 994 (Band A), GBP 927 (Band B) and GBP 680 (Band C). The band is set by the test centre, not the candidate's country of residence.

How is the MRCOG Part 3 pass mark determined?

There is no fixed numeric pass mark announced in advance. The standard is set for each circuit using Ebel's method, based on what a borderline candidate of reasonable knowledge and preparation should achieve.