100+ Free MRCOG Part 1 Practice Questions

Pass your MRCOG Part 1 exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

100+ Questions

100% Free

1 / 100

Question 1

Score: 0/0

Which protozoan, often acquired from undercooked meat or cat faeces, can cause congenital infection with intracranial calcification, chorioretinitis and hydrocephalus?

Trichomonas vaginalis

Plasmodium falciparum

Entamoeba histolytica

Toxoplasma gondii

to track

Same family resources

Explore More MRCOG Obstetrics & Gynaecology Exams

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

MRCOG Part 2

Practice Questions100 questions

MRCOG Part 3 (Clinical Assessment OSCE)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sample MRCOG Part 1 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your MRCOG Part 1 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1During a difficult vaginal hysterectomy, the surgeon must identify where the ureter is most at risk of injury. At which anatomical point does the ureter pass closest to the uterine artery?

A.Approximately 1.5 cm lateral to the cervix at the level of the internal os, where it passes beneath the uterine artery

B.At the pelvic brim where it crosses the common iliac vessels

C.As it enters the bladder at the trigone

D.Where it crosses the infundibulopelvic ligament

Explanation: The ureter passes beneath the uterine artery ('water under the bridge') about 1.5-2 cm lateral to the supravaginal cervix at the level of the internal cervical os, making this the classic site of ureteric injury during hysterectomy. Knowing this relationship is essential for safe pelvic surgery.

2Which artery is the principal blood supply to the body of the uterus?

A.Ovarian artery arising directly from the abdominal aorta

B.Internal pudendal artery

C.Uterine artery, a branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery

D.Inferior epigastric artery

Explanation: The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac (hypogastric) artery and is the main supply to the uterus, anastomosing with the ovarian artery along the broad ligament. This is a high-yield anatomy fact for the MRCOG Part 1.

3A pudendal nerve block is being performed for instrumental delivery. From which spinal nerve roots does the pudendal nerve arise?

A.L4, L5 and S1

B.S2, S3 and S4

C.T12, L1 and L2

D.S1, S2 and S3

Explanation: The pudendal nerve arises from the anterior rami of S2, S3 and S4 ('S2,3,4 keep the perineum off the floor'). It provides the main somatic innervation of the perineum, so its block relieves pain from the lower vagina and perineum during delivery.

4The ovary is suspended by several ligaments. Which structure carries the ovarian artery and vein to the ovary?

A.The ligament of the ovary (ovarian ligament proper)

B.The round ligament of the uterus

C.The cardinal (transverse cervical) ligament

D.The suspensory ligament of the ovary (infundibulopelvic ligament)

Explanation: The suspensory ligament of the ovary, also called the infundibulopelvic ligament, carries the ovarian vessels, lymphatics and nerves from the pelvic side wall to the ovary. It must be clamped and ligated carefully during oophorectomy because the ureter runs close beneath it.

5Lymph from the body of the uterus drains principally to which group of lymph nodes?

A.Superficial inguinal nodes

B.External and internal iliac nodes

C.Para-aortic nodes directly

D.Deep cervical nodes

Explanation: The body of the uterus drains mainly to the external and internal iliac nodes, with the fundus draining via the ovarian vessels to the para-aortic nodes and along the round ligament to the superficial inguinal nodes. Understanding uterine lymphatic drainage is important in gynaecological oncology staging.

6Which muscle forms the main bulk of the pelvic floor (pelvic diaphragm)?

A.Obturator internus

B.Piriformis

C.Levator ani

D.Coccygeus alone

Explanation: The levator ani, comprising the puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus, forms the major part of the pelvic diaphragm and supports the pelvic organs. Damage to this muscle during childbirth contributes to pelvic organ prolapse.

7During a Caesarean section the surgeon incises through the anterior abdominal wall. Immediately deep to the rectus abdominis muscle below the arcuate line, which layer is encountered before the peritoneum?

A.The aponeurosis of internal oblique

B.The posterior layer of the rectus sheath formed by transversus abdominis

C.Camper's fascia

D.Transversalis fascia (the posterior rectus sheath is absent below the arcuate line)

Explanation: Below the arcuate line (roughly midway between umbilicus and pubic symphysis), all three flat muscle aponeuroses pass anterior to rectus abdominis, so the posterior rectus sheath is deficient. Behind the muscle there is only transversalis fascia and then peritoneum, which is relevant to the lower-segment Caesarean incision.

8What is the normal anatomical position of the non-pregnant uterus in most women?

A.Anteverted and anteflexed

B.Retroverted and retroflexed

C.Axial and anteflexed

D.Retroverted and anteflexed

Explanation: In about 80% of women the uterus is anteverted (tilted forward on the vagina) and anteflexed (the body flexed forward on the cervix), resting on the bladder. Retroversion occurs in roughly 20% and is usually a normal variant.

9The vermis and lateral lobes are features of which organ relevant to fetal imaging, but in adult pelvic anatomy, which paired structure lies in the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa carrying the pudendal nerve and internal pudendal vessels?

A.The inguinal canal

B.The femoral canal

C.The pudendal (Alcock's) canal in the obturator internus fascia

D.The obturator canal

Explanation: The pudendal (Alcock's) canal is a fascial tunnel in the obturator internus fascia on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa, transmitting the pudendal nerve and internal pudendal vessels. It is the route by which these structures reach the perineum.

10Which part of the fallopian tube is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy implantation?

A.The isthmus

B.The ampulla

C.The interstitial (intramural) portion

D.The infundibulum with fimbriae

Explanation: The ampulla is the widest and longest part of the fallopian tube and is where fertilisation normally occurs; it is also the commonest site of tubal ectopic pregnancy (around 70%). The isthmus and interstitial portions account for the remainder and tend to rupture earlier.

About the MRCOG Part 1 Exam

The MRCOG Part 1 is the first of three examinations for Membership of the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, testing the basic and applied sciences underpinning obstetric and gynaecological practice. It comprises two computer-based papers of 100 single best answer questions each (200 in total) over a five-hour day. The pass mark is not fixed and is set for each diet using the Ebel standard-setting method.

Assessment

Two computer-based papers of 100 single best answer (SBA) questions each (200 total), covering 15 core knowledge areas across 4 domains of understanding.

Time Limit

Two papers of 2.5 hours each (5 hours total), usually with a 1-hour break in between.

Passing Score

No predetermined pass mark; the standard is set for each diet using the Ebel method and has recently equated to roughly 60-70%.

Exam Fee

Approximately GBP 550 at UK-banded centres; fees are banded by the country of the test centre using RCOG international membership bandings (verify the current fee on the RCOG website). (Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG))

MRCOG Part 1 Exam Content Outline

14%

Anatomy

Surgical and functional anatomy of the pelvis, abdomen, reproductive tract, vessels, nerves, lymphatics and histology.

13%

Physiology

Maternal, fetal and reproductive physiology, including cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, haematological and menstrual cycle changes.

Embryology

Fertilisation, implantation, genital tract development, placentation and the fetal circulation.

Endocrinology

Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, placental endocrinology, steroidogenesis and feedback control.

Pharmacology

Pharmacokinetics and dynamics, placental drug transfer, teratogenicity and obstetric and gynaecological drugs.

Biochemistry

Cellular and metabolic biochemistry, hormone signalling, placental transfer and inborn errors of metabolism.

Pathology

General and gynaecological pathology, including neoplasia, placental pathology and thrombophilia.

Microbiology

Bacteriology, virology and protozoa relevant to perinatal, genital and congenital infection.

Genetics

Inheritance patterns, chromosomal and single-gene disorders, prenatal screening and molecular genetics.

Immunology

Immunoglobulins, hypersensitivity reactions, maternal-fetal tolerance and rhesus disease.

Epidemiology and statistics

Study design, diagnostic test performance, risk measures, statistical tests and bias.

Data interpretation

Interpretation of clinical and laboratory data such as CTG, fetal blood sampling and the partogram.

Biophysics

Physical principles of ultrasound, Doppler and surgical diathermy.

Clinical management

Applying basic science to common obstetric and gynaecological management decisions and to consent.

How to Pass the MRCOG Part 1 Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: No predetermined pass mark; the standard is set for each diet using the Ebel method and has recently equated to roughly 60-70%.
Assessment: Two computer-based papers of 100 single best answer (SBA) questions each (200 total), covering 15 core knowledge areas across 4 domains of understanding.
Time limit: Two papers of 2.5 hours each (5 hours total), usually with a 1-hour break in between.
Exam fee: Approximately GBP 550 at UK-banded centres; fees are banded by the country of the test centre using RCOG international membership bandings (verify the current fee on the RCOG website).

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

MRCOG Part 1 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Map your revision to the RCOG 15 core knowledge areas and weight your time toward the large basic-science topics (anatomy, physiology, embryology, endocrinology and pharmacology), which generate the most questions.

2Practise large volumes of single best answer questions under timed conditions, since the exam tests applied reasoning and roughly 90 seconds per question, not just recall.

3Use UK-relevant references (such as NICE guidance and the BNF) when learning pharmacology, teratogenicity and clinical management, because the exam reflects UK practice standards.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the MRCOG Part 1 exam?

The MRCOG Part 1 consists of 200 single best answer (SBA) questions, split into two computer-based papers of 100 questions each. The two papers are taken on the same day and the scores are combined into a single mark.

How long is the MRCOG Part 1 exam?

Each of the two papers lasts 2.5 hours, giving 5 hours of testing in total, with a break (usually around 1 hour) between papers.

What is the pass mark for MRCOG Part 1?

There is no fixed pass mark. The standard is set separately for each diet using the Ebel method, so the percentage needed varies with the difficulty of the paper and has recently equated to roughly 60-70%.

What subjects does MRCOG Part 1 cover?

Part 1 assesses 15 core basic-science knowledge areas across four domains: anatomy, embryology, genetics, physiology, endocrinology, biochemistry, biophysics, epidemiology, statistics, data interpretation, pharmacology, immunology, microbiology, pathology and clinical management.