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100+ Free ORE Part 2 Practice Questions

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Sample ORE Part 2 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ORE Part 2 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In the ORE Part 2 operative test on the dental manikin, candidates are required to perform a set number of procedures within a fixed time. How many procedures and over what period?
A.Three procedures over three hours
B.Two procedures over two hours
C.Four procedures over four hours
D.Five procedures over two and a half hours
Explanation: The GDC ORE Part 2 operative (dental manikin) test requires candidates to complete three procedures over a three-hour period, primarily involving tooth preparation and restoration. This component is held at the UCL Eastman Dental Institute.
2You are preparing a Class II cavity on a manikin lower molar (tooth 36) for an amalgam restoration. To resist the occlusal forces that tend to displace amalgam, which feature is MOST important for the proximal box?
A.Rounded internal line angles with a flat gingival floor at right angles to the long axis
B.A divergent box that widens occlusally
C.A bevelled occlusal cavosurface margin
D.Removal of all enamel from the gingival cavosurface margin
Explanation: Amalgam relies on a retentive, resistance form: rounded internal line angles reduce stress concentration, and a flat gingival floor at approximately 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth resists displacement under occlusal load. Sharp angles risk fracture of both tooth and material.
3While cutting a cavity on the manikin you note the dental dam has not been placed. For a posterior composite restoration, what is the principal reason isolation with rubber dam is the standard of care in UK practice?
A.It provides moisture control and a clean operating field essential for adhesive bonding
B.It is required to obtain GDC indemnity
C.It speeds up amalgam setting
D.It eliminates the need for a matrix band
Explanation: Adhesive (resin composite) restorations are highly technique-sensitive to moisture and saliva contamination, which compromise the bond. Rubber dam provides reliable moisture control, retraction of soft tissues, and a clean field, and is regarded as best practice for posterior composites in the UK.
4During an access cavity preparation for root canal treatment on a maxillary first molar manikin tooth, how many canals should you expect to locate in the majority of cases?
A.Two canals
B.Three canals
C.Four canals (including a second mesiobuccal canal)
D.One canal
Explanation: The maxillary first molar most commonly has four canals: mesiobuccal (MB1), a frequently-present second mesiobuccal (MB2), distobuccal, and palatal. MB2 is present in a high proportion of cases and is a common cause of endodontic failure if missed.
5When placing a posterior resin composite incrementally, why is each increment limited to approximately 2 mm in depth?
A.To ensure adequate depth of cure and minimise polymerisation shrinkage stress
B.To reduce the cost of composite used
C.To allow the amalgam to bond
D.Because the curing light cannot reach more than 1 mm
Explanation: Conventional composites cure reliably only to a limited depth, and incremental placement (around 2 mm) ensures adequate polymerisation throughout while reducing the configuration (C-factor) stress and shrinkage that can cause debonding and post-operative sensitivity.
6A manikin tooth has deep caries approaching the pulp. You achieve a small carious exposure on a vital, asymptomatic permanent tooth. Which material is most appropriate for a direct pulp cap to encourage a dentine bridge?
A.Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) or a calcium silicate cement
B.Zinc oxide eugenol
C.Glass ionomer alone
D.Composite placed directly on the exposure
Explanation: Calcium silicate cements such as MTA (and Biodentine) are the materials of choice for direct pulp capping, providing an excellent seal, biocompatibility, and stimulation of reparative dentine (dentine bridge) formation in a vital, asymptomatic tooth.
7You are crown-preparing an upper central incisor manikin tooth for a metal-ceramic crown. What is the typical recommended total occlusal/axial convergence (taper) of the prepared walls to achieve retention and a path of insertion?
A.Around 6 degrees total convergence
B.Around 0 degrees (parallel walls)
C.Around 30 degrees total convergence
D.Around 45 degrees total convergence
Explanation: A total occlusal convergence of approximately 6 degrees (about 3 degrees per wall) is the classic ideal: it provides good retention and resistance form while still allowing a single path of insertion and adequate cement escape. Excessive taper markedly reduces retention.
8When restoring a proximal contact in a Class II composite on the manikin, what is the principal function of a sectional matrix system with a separating ring?
A.To create tooth separation and an anatomically contoured tight proximal contact
B.To increase polymerisation depth
C.To prevent the need for a wedge
D.To bond the matrix permanently to the tooth
Explanation: A sectional matrix with a separating (tension) ring applies orthodontic-type separation to compensate for matrix thickness and reproduces the natural convex proximal contour, achieving a tight, properly located proximal contact in Class II composites.
9On the manikin you over-prepare a cavity and create a sharp internal line angle. Why is this a concern for an amalgam restoration?
A.Sharp internal angles concentrate stress and predispose to tooth or restoration fracture
B.It improves marginal seal
C.It increases mercury release
D.It has no clinical significance
Explanation: Sharp internal line angles act as stress concentrators within both the tooth structure and the amalgam, predisposing to fracture under occlusal loading. Rounding internal line angles distributes stress and improves longevity.
10For the ORE Part 2 operative test, where is the dental manikin component physically held?
A.UCL Eastman Dental Institute
B.A Pearson VUE test centre
C.The GDC headquarters in Wimpole Street
D.Any approved dental hospital in the UK
Explanation: Since the contract moved, the ORE Part 2 examination, including the operative manikin test, is delivered by the UCL Eastman Dental Institute. Candidates attend in person at the Eastman facilities in London.

About the ORE Part 2 Exam

ORE Part 2 is the clinical stage of the GDC's Overseas Registration Examination, which overseas-qualified dentists must pass (after ORE Part 1) to register and practise in the UK. It tests practical operative skills on a manikin, diagnosis and treatment planning, medical emergencies including single-handed basic life support, and OSCE clinical and professional skills, delivered by the UCL Eastman Dental Institute.

Assessment

Multi-day practical exam: operative manikin test, diagnosis & treatment planning, medical emergencies (oral plus BLS demonstration), and an OSCE circuit.

Time Limit

Delivered over several days; the operative manikin test lasts three hours and OSCE stations run about six minutes each.

Passing Score

Candidates must reach the required clinical standard set by the GDC's provider across all components. No single percentage pass mark is published, and appeals against results or examiner decisions are not permitted.

Exam Fee

GBP 6,967 for the full Part 2 (2026 fee, inclusive of VAT); a medical-emergencies-only retake costs GBP 686. (General Dental Council (GDC), UK)

ORE Part 2 Exam Content Outline

22%

Operative dentistry (dental manikin)

Three operative procedures in three hours on a manikin, covering cavity preparation, amalgam and composite restoration, crown preparation and endodontic access, assessed for technique and anatomy.

22%

Diagnosis and treatment planning

Integrating an actor's history with radiographs, photographs, study models and special tests to form diagnoses and structured, correctly sequenced treatment plans.

20%

OSCE clinical skills, ethics and law

Stations on history taking, communication, consent, ethics, professionalism, confidentiality, safeguarding, infection control and radiation protection under UK standards.

16%

Medical emergencies

Scenario-based oral assessment plus single-handed adult basic life support and CPR on a manikin per Resuscitation Council UK guidance, including emergency drug knowledge.

8%

Restorative and prosthodontics

Fixed and removable prosthodontics, crown and denture design, impressions and occlusion applied to clinical scenarios and the manikin test.

8%

Oral surgery and oral medicine

Extraction risks, spreading infection, mucosal disease, cysts, anticoagulation, MRONJ and prescribing within UK and NICE guidance.

4%

Periodontology and prevention

BPE screening, periodontal diagnosis, oral hygiene instruction, fluoride and caries prevention following UK preventive guidance.

How to Pass the ORE Part 2 Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Candidates must reach the required clinical standard set by the GDC's provider across all components. No single percentage pass mark is published, and appeals against results or examiner decisions are not permitted.
  • Assessment: Multi-day practical exam: operative manikin test, diagnosis & treatment planning, medical emergencies (oral plus BLS demonstration), and an OSCE circuit.
  • Time limit: Delivered over several days; the operative manikin test lasts three hours and OSCE stations run about six minutes each.
  • Exam fee: GBP 6,967 for the full Part 2 (2026 fee, inclusive of VAT); a medical-emergencies-only retake costs GBP 686.

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ORE Part 2 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Drill Resuscitation Council UK basic life support to automaticity: compression rate 100-120 per minute, depth 5-6 cm, ratio 30:2, plus the emergency drug doses (IM adrenaline 500 micrograms 1:1000, aspirin 300 mg, oral or IM glucose/glucagon, salbutamol, buccal midazolam, GTN).
2Practise operative skills on a manikin against a clock - aim to complete clean, anatomically correct cavity and crown preparations within the three-hour, three-procedure standard, with rubber dam and good moisture control.
3Rehearse OSCE communication, consent, safeguarding and treatment-planning stations against UK frameworks (GDC Standards for the Dental Team, NICE, SDCEP and Delivering Better Oral Health) so your reasoning reflects current UK practice.

Frequently Asked Questions

What does ORE Part 2 involve?

ORE Part 2 is a practical clinical examination with four elements: an operative test on a dental manikin (three procedures in three hours), a diagnosis and treatment planning exercise, a medical emergencies assessment including single-handed basic life support, and an OSCE circuit of clinical and professional stations.

How much does ORE Part 2 cost in 2026?

The 2026 ORE Part 2 fee is GBP 6,967 (inclusive of VAT), a rise of about 65% under the new contract. A medical-emergencies-only retake costs GBP 686. Candidates must already have passed ORE Part 1.

How many attempts do you get at ORE Part 2?

Candidates are permitted up to four attempts at ORE Part 2, and must complete the ORE within five years of passing Part 1. The GDC does not allow appeals against results or examiner decisions.

Who delivers ORE Part 2 and where?

Under the current contract the ORE is delivered by the UCL Eastman Dental Institute in London. The operative manikin component and OSCE stations are held at the Eastman facilities, with results issued within roughly 20 working days.