All Practice Exams
100+ Free FRCS (Plast) Practice Questions
Intercollegiate Specialty Fellowship Examination in Plastic Surgery (FRCS Plast) practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.
✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
100+ Questions
100% Free
1 / 100
Question 1
Score: 0/0
A multidisciplinary team (MDT) meeting is discussing a complex head and neck cancer case. What is the primary purpose of the MDT in cancer care?
A
B
C
D
to track
Same family resources
Explore More MRCS & FRCS Surgical Exams
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
Sample FRCS (Plast) Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your FRCS (Plast) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 34-year-old man presents 6 hours after sustaining a 35% TBSA flame burn. Using the Parkland formula, what total volume of crystalloid should be calculated for the first 24 hours in an 80 kg patient?
A.5,600 mL
B.2,800 mL
C.16,800 mL
D.11,200 mL
Explanation: The Parkland formula is 4 mL x weight (kg) x %TBSA for the first 24 hours from the time of burn. 4 x 80 x 35 = 11,200 mL. Half is given in the first 8 hours from injury and the remainder over the following 16 hours, titrated to a urine output of 0.5-1.0 mL/kg/hr.
2When assessing burn depth, which clinical finding is most consistent with a deep dermal (deep partial-thickness) burn rather than a superficial dermal burn?
A.Brisk capillary refill and intact sensation
B.Blistering with a moist pink base that blanches
C.A fixed staining, sluggish capillary refill and reduced pinprick sensation
D.A dry, leathery, insensate eschar
Explanation: Deep dermal burns destroy most of the dermal capillary plexus and nerve endings, producing fixed capillary staining, sluggish or absent blanching and diminished sensation. These burns are unlikely to heal within 3 weeks and usually require excision and grafting to avoid hypertrophic scarring.
3A patient sustains a circumferential full-thickness burn to the forearm. Six hours later the hand is cool, capillary refill is delayed and the radial pulse is becoming difficult to detect on Doppler. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A.Elevate the limb and observe for 4 hours
B.Take the patient to theatre for tangential excision and grafting
C.Perform escharotomy along the mid-medial and mid-lateral lines
D.Apply a circumferential pressure dressing
Explanation: A circumferential full-thickness burn produces an inelastic eschar that, with tissue oedema, raises compartment pressure and compromises distal perfusion. Escharotomy releases the constriction; in the upper limb incisions are made along the mid-medial and mid-lateral axes, avoiding key structures, and extended across joints as needed.
4Which feature in a burn-injured patient is the strongest indicator that early intubation for an inhalation injury should be considered?
A.Superficial facial burns with no other airway signs
B.Carbonaceous sputum, hoarse voice and progressive stridor
C.A carboxyhaemoglobin level of 3%
D.Isolated singed nasal vibrissae with a clear chest
Explanation: Carbonaceous sputum, voice change and progressive stridor signify an evolving upper-airway inhalation injury. Airway oedema progresses rapidly, particularly after fluid resuscitation begins, so early intubation before the airway closes is the safe course.
5A child sustains a scald to the trunk and one entire arm. Using the Lund and Browder chart principles, why is the 'rule of nines' less accurate in young children?
A.Children have proportionally smaller heads and larger legs than adults
B.Children have identical body proportions to adults
C.Children have proportionally larger heads and smaller legs than adults
D.The palm of a child represents 5% of body surface area
Explanation: In infants and young children the head represents a much greater proportion of total body surface area (around 18% in infancy) and the lower limbs a smaller proportion than in adults. The Lund and Browder chart adjusts for these age-related differences, making it more accurate than the rule of nines in paediatric burns.
6A patient with an electrical high-voltage injury develops dark, tea-coloured urine. Which intervention is most important to prevent acute kidney injury?
A.Restrict fluids to avoid pulmonary oedema
B.Administer a loop diuretic as first-line therapy
C.Immediate haemodialysis regardless of renal function
D.Aggressive fluid resuscitation to maintain a high urine output, with consideration of alkalinisation
Explanation: High-voltage injury causes deep muscle necrosis and rhabdomyolysis, releasing myoglobin that precipitates in renal tubules. Aggressive crystalloid resuscitation to maintain a urine output of around 1-2 mL/kg/hr flushes the tubules; urinary alkalinisation may be considered to increase myoglobin solubility.
7A worker sustains a hydrofluoric acid burn to the fingers. In addition to copious irrigation, which specific antidote is indicated?
A.Topical or intradermal calcium gluconate
B.Sodium bicarbonate paste
C.Polyethylene glycol
D.Diphoterine alone with no further treatment
Explanation: Hydrofluoric acid causes injury through fluoride ions that chelate calcium and magnesium, producing severe pain and hypocalcaemia. Calcium gluconate (topical gel, intradermal or intra-arterial) binds free fluoride and is the specific antidote; systemic calcium and magnesium monitoring is also required.
8Following excision of a large burn wound, which dermal substitute is a bilaminar acellular matrix of bovine collagen and chondroitin-6-sulphate covered by a silicone layer, designed for two-stage reconstruction?
A.Split-thickness skin graft alone
B.Integra dermal regeneration template
C.Cultured epithelial autograft
D.Acellular human dermis applied as a single stage with no silicone
Explanation: Integra is a bilaminar dermal regeneration template consisting of a cross-linked bovine collagen and chondroitin-6-sulphate matrix beneath a temporary silicone epidermal layer. After dermal neovascularisation (around 3 weeks) the silicone is removed and a thin split-thickness graft is applied, improving pliability over deep or full-thickness wounds.
9A 28-year-old presents with toxic epidermal necrolysis affecting 40% of the body surface. Which statement about management is correct?
A.TEN should be managed identically to a thermal burn with early tangential excision of all involved skin
B.The SCORTEN score has no role in prognosis
C.Management is supportive in a burns or intensive care setting, withdrawing the causative drug and providing meticulous wound and fluid care
D.Prophylactic systemic antibiotics are mandatory from admission
Explanation: TEN is a severe drug-induced mucocutaneous reaction. Care is centred on prompt withdrawal of the causative agent, transfer to a burns or critical care unit, fluid and nutritional support, temperature control and non-adherent wound dressings. Unlike thermal burns, routine surgical excision of detached epidermis is not standard and the SCORTEN scale guides prognosis.
10According to UK referral guidance, which burn should be referred to a specialist burns service?
A.A 1% superficial scald to the forearm in a healthy adult
B.Any burn involving the face, hands, feet, perineum or a major joint
C.A small superficial sunburn
D.A minor friction blister on the heel
Explanation: National burn referral criteria mandate specialist referral for burns to special areas (face, hands, feet, perineum, genitalia and major joints) because of the functional and cosmetic consequences. Other referral triggers include large TBSA, full-thickness burns, chemical, electrical and inhalation injuries, and burns in extremes of age or with non-accidental injury concerns.
About the FRCS (Plast) Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Intercollegiate Specialty Fellowship Examination in Plastic Surgery (FRCS Plast) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.