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100+ Free FRCS Neurosurgery Practice Questions

Prepare for the Intercollegiate Specialty Fellowship Examination in Neurosurgery (FRCS SN) exam with instant access — no signup required.

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Sample FRCS Neurosurgery Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FRCS Neurosurgery exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old presents with a 6-week history of progressive headache and dysphasia. MRI shows a peripherally enhancing left temporal mass with central necrosis and surrounding T2/FLAIR signal. Histology confirms a WHO grade 4 IDH-wildtype astrocytic tumour. Which molecular marker most strongly predicts benefit from temozolomide and a better prognosis?
A.MGMT promoter methylation
B.EGFR amplification
C.TERT promoter mutation
D.Chromosome 10 loss
Explanation: In glioblastoma (IDH-wildtype, WHO grade 4), MGMT promoter methylation silences the DNA repair enzyme, leaving temozolomide-induced DNA damage unrepaired. Methylated tumours have significantly better response to temozolomide and longer survival, and the marker is used to guide therapy in elderly patients.
2According to the WHO 2021 classification of CNS tumours, which combination of molecular features defines a 1p/19q-codeleted oligodendroglioma?
A.IDH-wildtype with EGFR amplification
B.IDH-mutant with whole-arm codeletion of 1p and 19q
C.IDH-mutant with ATRX loss and TP53 mutation
D.H3 K27M mutation with loss of nuclear H3 K27me3
Explanation: Oligodendroglioma in the WHO 2021 scheme requires both an IDH mutation (IDH1 or IDH2) AND whole-arm codeletion of chromosomes 1p and 19q. Both features are mandatory for the integrated diagnosis; this combination also confers chemosensitivity (PCV) and favourable prognosis.
3A 45-year-old has a well-circumscribed, dural-based, homogeneously enhancing extra-axial mass with a dural tail on MRI. At operation the lesion is firm and attached to the dura. Which is the single most appropriate grading system to apply to the resection achieved?
A.Hunt and Hess grading
B.Spetzler-Martin grading
C.Simpson grading
D.Fisher grading
Explanation: The lesion is a meningioma (dural-based, enhancing, dural tail). The Simpson grade classifies the completeness of meningioma resection from grade I (complete removal with excision of dural attachment and abnormal bone) to grade V (decompression only) and correlates with recurrence risk.
4A 35-year-old presents with progressive hearing loss, tinnitus and unsteadiness. MRI shows an enhancing mass in the left cerebellopontine angle extending into the internal auditory meatus, with an 'ice-cream cone' appearance. Which cranial nerve does this tumour most commonly arise from?
A.Trigeminal nerve (V)
B.Cochlear division of cranial nerve VIII
C.Facial nerve (VII)
D.Superior vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII
Explanation: Vestibular schwannomas most commonly arise from the Schwann cells of the vestibular (typically superior vestibular) division of the eighth cranial nerve, near the Obersteiner-Redlich zone in the internal auditory canal. They present with sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus and imbalance.
5A 30-year-old woman has secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Serum prolactin is markedly elevated at 8,000 mU/L and MRI shows a 1.5 cm pituitary macroadenoma. There is no visual field defect. What is the most appropriate first-line management?
A.Dopamine agonist (cabergoline)
B.Transsphenoidal surgical resection
C.Stereotactic radiosurgery
D.Bilateral adrenalectomy
Explanation: Prolactinomas, even macroadenomas, are first-line treated medically with a dopamine agonist such as cabergoline, which normalises prolactin and shrinks the tumour in the majority of patients. Surgery is reserved for medication intolerance, resistance, apoplexy or CSF leak.
6A 52-year-old presents with bitemporal hemianopia. MRI demonstrates a sellar/suprasellar mass with elevation of the optic chiasm. Which structure is most directly responsible for the visual field defect?
A.Compression of the optic tract
B.Compression of the crossing nasal retinal fibres at the optic chiasm
C.Compression of the lateral geniculate nucleus
D.Compression of the temporal retinal fibres in the optic nerve
Explanation: The nasal retinal fibres, which carry information from the temporal visual fields, decussate at the optic chiasm. A suprasellar mass elevating and compressing the chiasm interrupts these crossing fibres, producing a bitemporal hemianopia.
7A 6-year-old presents with morning headache, vomiting and truncal ataxia. CT shows a midline posterior fossa mass arising from the cerebellar vermis with hydrocephalus. Histology shows small round blue cells with Homer Wright rosettes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Ependymoma
B.Pilocytic astrocytoma
C.Medulloblastoma
D.Haemangioblastoma
Explanation: A midline vermian posterior fossa tumour in a child with small round blue cells and Homer Wright rosettes is a medulloblastoma, a WHO grade 4 embryonal tumour. It commonly causes obstructive hydrocephalus and can disseminate through the CSF, requiring craniospinal staging.
8A 60-year-old with known metastatic non-small cell lung cancer develops a single 3 cm enhancing cerebellar metastasis causing fourth ventricular effacement and early obstructive hydrocephalus, but is otherwise neurologically intact with good performance status. What is the most appropriate management of the lesion?
A.Chemotherapy alone
B.Whole brain radiotherapy alone
C.Best supportive care
D.Surgical resection followed by adjuvant radiotherapy
Explanation: A single, surgically accessible metastasis causing mass effect and threatened hydrocephalus in a patient with good performance status is best treated by surgical resection to relieve mass effect, followed by adjuvant radiotherapy (cavity radiosurgery or whole brain) to improve local control.
9A 28-year-old man with a family history of bilateral vestibular schwannomas is found to have multiple meningiomas and an ependymoma. Which gene is most likely mutated?
A.NF2 (merlin)
B.NF1 (neurofibromin)
C.VHL
D.TSC1
Explanation: Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are pathognomonic of neurofibromatosis type 2, caused by mutation of the NF2 gene encoding merlin (schwannomin) on chromosome 22. NF2 is also associated with multiple meningiomas and spinal ependymomas.
10During an awake craniotomy for a left frontal glioma, intraoperative direct cortical stimulation of an area immediately anterior to the inferior precentral gyrus causes speech arrest. Which functional region has most likely been identified?
A.Wernicke's area
B.Broca's area (pars opercularis/triangularis of the inferior frontal gyrus)
C.Primary motor cortex of the hand
D.Supplementary motor area
Explanation: Speech arrest on stimulation of the dominant inferior frontal gyrus (pars opercularis and triangularis) localises Broca's area, the expressive language centre. Mapping and preserving this region during awake surgery reduces the risk of permanent expressive dysphasia.

About the FRCS Neurosurgery Exam

The FRCS (SN) is the exit examination in neurosurgery for UK and Ireland higher surgical trainees, delivered by the JCIE. It comprises Section 1 written papers (SBA and EMI delivered at Pearson VUE) and a Section 2 clinical and structured oral examination, both set at the standard of a day-one consultant.

Assessment

Section 1: two computer-based written papers (SBA and EMI) taken on the same day. Section 2: a two-day clinical examination (long case and short cases) plus structured oral stations.

Time Limit

Section 1 Paper 1 (SBA) approximately 2 hours and Paper 2 (EMI) approximately 2 hours 30 minutes; Section 2 spans two days of clinical and oral assessment.

Passing Score

Section 1 pass mark is set by criterion-referenced standard setting (no fixed percentage). Section 2 marking events are scored 4-8, with 6 as the pass standard, benchmarked to the day-one consultant level.

Exam Fee

From 1 January 2026 the total fee is GBP 2,000 (Section 1 GBP 580; Section 2 GBP 1,420), as set by the JCIE. (Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations (JCIE))

FRCS Neurosurgery Exam Content Outline

14%

Neuro-oncology

Gliomas and WHO 2021 molecular markers, meningiomas, pituitary tumours, vestibular schwannomas, metastases and adjuvant therapy.

18%

Vascular neurosurgery

Aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage, AVMs and cavernomas, carotid disease, ischaemic stroke and intracerebral haemorrhage.

12%

Spinal neurosurgery

Degenerative spine, cauda equina, cervical myelopathy, spinal trauma, cord compression and spinal infection.

8%

Neurotrauma and neurocritical care

Head injury and GCS, intracranial and cerebral perfusion pressure, traumatic haematomas and decompressive surgery.

6%

Functional neurosurgery

Trigeminal neuralgia, deep brain stimulation, epilepsy surgery, movement disorders and spasticity.

10%

Paediatric neurosurgery

Hydrocephalus and shunts, neural tube defects, craniosynostosis, Chiari malformations and paediatric tumours.

7%

Peripheral nerve

Entrapment neuropathies, traumatic and brachial plexus injuries, Seddon grading and nerve regeneration.

20%

Applied neurosciences and anatomy

CSF physiology, cranial and vascular anatomy, neurophysiology, neuropharmacology and neuroradiology.

5%

Neurosurgical practice and professionalism

Consent and capacity, surgical safety, perioperative care and the day-one consultant standard.

How to Pass the FRCS Neurosurgery Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Section 1 pass mark is set by criterion-referenced standard setting (no fixed percentage). Section 2 marking events are scored 4-8, with 6 as the pass standard, benchmarked to the day-one consultant level.
  • Assessment: Section 1: two computer-based written papers (SBA and EMI) taken on the same day. Section 2: a two-day clinical examination (long case and short cases) plus structured oral stations.
  • Time limit: Section 1 Paper 1 (SBA) approximately 2 hours and Paper 2 (EMI) approximately 2 hours 30 minutes; Section 2 spans two days of clinical and oral assessment.
  • Exam fee: From 1 January 2026 the total fee is GBP 2,000 (Section 1 GBP 580; Section 2 GBP 1,420), as set by the JCIE.

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FRCS Neurosurgery Study Tips from Top Performers

1Map your revision to the neurosurgery curriculum domains and weight time toward high-yield areas such as vascular neurosurgery and applied neurosciences/anatomy.
2Drill SBA and EMI questions under timed conditions to build the pattern-recognition speed needed for the Pearson VUE written papers.
3Anchor answers to UK practice and landmark evidence (ISAT, STICH, RESCUEicp, CRASH, NICE and Montgomery) since the standard is day-one UK consultant practice.

Frequently Asked Questions

How is the FRCS Neurosurgery (FRCS SN) exam structured?

It has two parts. Section 1 is two computer-based written papers - a Single Best Answer paper and an Extended Matching Items paper - delivered at Pearson VUE. Section 2 is a two-day clinical examination with a long case, short cases and structured oral stations. Section 1 must be passed before attempting Section 2.

How much does the FRCS Neurosurgery exam cost in 2026?

From 1 January 2026 the total JCIE examination fee is GBP 2,000, split as GBP 580 for Section 1 and GBP 1,420 for Section 2. Fees are reviewed annually by the JCIE.

What standard is the FRCS Neurosurgery exam set at?

The examination is pitched at the level of a day-one consultant who is competent to practise safely and independently in the generality of neurosurgery. Section 1 uses criterion-referenced standard setting, and Section 2 marking events are scored 4-8 with 6 as the pass.

How many attempts are allowed at FRCS Neurosurgery?

Candidates have a maximum of four attempts at each section, with Section 1 to be completed within two years of the first attempt, and the whole examination completed within the JCIE-defined overall window.