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100+ Free FRCR Part 2B Practice Questions

Final FRCR Part B Examination (Clinical Radiology) - CR2B practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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A long-case CT abdomen incidentally reveals a finding unrelated to the clinical indication: a 2 cm enhancing pancreatic lesion suspicious for a neuroendocrine tumour. What is the most appropriate professional action regarding this incidental finding?

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Sample FRCR Part 2B Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FRCR Part 2B exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 55-year-old smoker has a chest radiograph showing a peripheral right upper lobe mass. Which radiographic sign on the frontal film most reliably indicates that the lesion arises within the lung rather than the mediastinum or pleura?
A.Acute angles with the lung and a complete, well-defined border
B.An obtuse angle with the chest wall and incomplete border
C.Silhouetting of the right heart border
D.Elevation of the right hemidiaphragm
Explanation: An intrapulmonary lesion typically forms acute angles with the pleural surface and has a complete, sharply defined border on at least part of its circumference. Extrapulmonary (pleural/mediastinal) lesions form obtuse angles and have incomplete borders where they merge with adjacent soft tissue.
2On a frontal chest radiograph of a patient with left lower lobe collapse, which finding would you expect to report?
A.A raised right hemidiaphragm with a tented costophrenic angle
B.A 'sail sign' producing a triangular opacity behind the heart with loss of the medial left hemidiaphragm
C.Widening of the right paratracheal stripe
D.A meniscus at the left costophrenic angle with tracheal deviation to the right
Explanation: Left lower lobe collapse produces a triangular retrocardiac opacity (the 'sail sign'), loss of the medial part of the left hemidiaphragm outline, and a depressed/medially displaced left hilum. Recognising the retrocardiac triangle is a classic exam pitfall as it is easily missed behind the cardiac shadow.
3A 30-year-old presents with acute pleuritic chest pain and breathlessness. CT pulmonary angiogram shows a filling defect. Which CT finding indicates acute pulmonary embolism rather than chronic thromboembolic disease?
A.Webs and bands within the pulmonary arteries
B.Eccentric, crescentic thrombus contiguous with the vessel wall forming obtuse angles
C.A central, partially occlusive filling defect forming acute angles with the vessel wall
D.Mosaic attenuation with vessel calibre variation
Explanation: Acute PE typically appears as a central intraluminal filling defect surrounded by contrast (the 'polo mint'/railway track sign) that forms acute angles with the vessel wall. Chronic disease shows eccentric mural thrombus forming obtuse angles, webs/bands, abrupt vessel cut-offs and mosaic perfusion.
4A long-case CT chest in a 62-year-old shows subpleural reticulation, honeycombing and traction bronchiectasis with a basal and peripheral predominance, and no significant ground-glass. Which pattern should you report?
A.Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)
B.Organising pneumonia
C.Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
D.Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP)
Explanation: Basal, subpleural-predominant honeycombing with traction bronchiectasis and reticulation, in the absence of features that suggest an alternative diagnosis, is the typical UIP pattern, most often idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. Honeycombing is the key discriminator from NSIP.
5Under the UK Fleischner Society guidance applied in NHS practice, a solid incidental pulmonary nodule of 7 mm in a low-risk patient warrants which recommendation?
A.CT follow-up at 6-12 months, then consider at 18-24 months
B.No routine follow-up required
C.Immediate PET-CT and biopsy
D.CT follow-up at 3 months only
Explanation: Per Fleischner 2017 criteria (widely used in the UK alongside BTS guidance), a single solid nodule of 6-8 mm in a low-risk individual should be followed up with CT at 6-12 months, then considered again at 18-24 months. Nodules under 6 mm in low-risk patients need no routine follow-up.
6A frontal chest radiograph shows a 'water bottle' configuration of the cardiac silhouette with clear lung fields in a breathless patient. What is the most likely diagnosis to report?
A.Left ventricular failure
B.Large pericardial effusion
C.Atrial septal defect
D.Aortic dissection
Explanation: A globular 'water bottle'-shaped cardiomegaly with clear lung fields (no pulmonary oedema) in a symptomatic patient suggests a large pericardial effusion. Echocardiography is the next step to confirm and assess for tamponade physiology.
7A rapid-reporting trauma chest radiograph shows deep sulcus sign with an unusually lucent left hemithorax and a sharply outlined cardiac border. What should you report?
A.Left lower lobe collapse
B.Left pleural effusion
C.Left tension pneumothorax
D.Pneumomediastinum
Explanation: On a supine radiograph, air collects anteriorly and inferiorly, producing a deep, lucent costophrenic sulcus (deep sulcus sign) and a sharply outlined heart border. Combined with hyperlucency this indicates pneumothorax; mediastinal shift away would indicate tension requiring urgent decompression.
8An HRCT in a young non-smoker shows multiple thin-walled cysts of varying size and shape with irregular contours, sparing the costophrenic angles, in a patient with recurrent pneumothoraces. Which diagnosis fits best?
A.Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
B.Centrilobular emphysema
C.Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia
D.Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Explanation: Bizarre, irregularly shaped cysts (some bilobed/branching) with upper- and mid-zone predominance, costophrenic angle sparing and nodules in a young smoker point to pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Recurrent pneumothorax is a recognised complication.
9A CT in an elderly patient shows a large hiatus hernia, but you also note a 6 cm fusiform dilatation of the ascending thoracic aorta. At what maximal ascending aortic diameter does UK practice generally recommend referral for consideration of elective surgical repair in an otherwise non-syndromic patient?
A.5.5 cm
B.4.0 cm
C.4.5 cm
D.7.0 cm
Explanation: For degenerative (non-syndromic) ascending thoracic aortic aneurysms, elective repair is generally considered at around 5.5 cm. Lower thresholds apply in connective tissue disorders such as Marfan syndrome or bicuspid aortic valve. A 6 cm aneurysm therefore warrants surgical referral.
10A long case shows a chest radiograph with bilateral symmetrical hilar enlargement and right paratracheal nodal enlargement, in a 35-year-old with erythema nodosum. Which diagnosis should head your differential?
A.Lymphoma
B.Sarcoidosis
C.Tuberculosis
D.Metastatic disease
Explanation: Bilateral symmetrical hilar lymphadenopathy with right paratracheal nodes (the '1-2-3' or Garland triad) in a young adult with erythema nodosum is classic for sarcoidosis (Lofgren syndrome). Symmetry is the key feature distinguishing it from malignant or infective causes.

About the FRCR Part 2B Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Final FRCR Part B Examination (Clinical Radiology) - CR2B is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.