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100+ Free CILEX CPQ P2 Dispute Resolution Practice Questions
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Key Facts: CILEX CPQ P2 Dispute Resolution Exam
50%
Pass Mark
CILEX Assessment Standards
£400–£500
Assessment Fee
CILEX Fee Schedule
100
Practice MCQ Bank
OpenExamPrep Practice Bank
Synoptic
Official Format
CILEX CPQ Assessment Framework
5
Syllabus Domains
CILEX CPQ P2 Blueprint
The CILEX CPQ Professional Stage P2 Dispute Resolution Law and Practice examination tests advanced procedural mastery across civil litigation in England and Wales. Key syllabus areas include complex tactics, Part 36 offers, costs budgeting, expert evidence under CPR Part 35, interim injunctions, commercial arbitration, mediation, CPR Part 52 appeals, and judgment enforcement. Official assessment specs include an assessment fee of £400–£500, a passing score of 50%, and administration by CILEX. Please note that the official assessment is a synoptic online case-study assessment, while our practice bank provides an English-language MCQ study adaptation consisting of 100 scenario-based practice questions.
Sample CILEX CPQ P2 Dispute Resolution Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your CILEX CPQ P2 Dispute Resolution exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1Under the Practice Direction - Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols (PDPAC), what primary objective must parties achieve before issuing civil proceedings in the High Court or County Court?
A.Exchange sufficient information to understand each other's position and attempt to settle without litigation
B.Obtain an interim injunction restraining the defendant from disposing of relevant assets
C.File a Precedent H costs budget with the court prior to sending a Letter of Claim
D.Apply for a Group Litigation Order if more than two claimants are involved
Explanation: The primary objective of pre-action conduct under the PDPAC is to encourage the early exchange of information and enable parties to clarify claims, evaluate options, and settle disputes without court intervention. Proceedings should be a last resort. Precedent H budgeting and Group Litigation Orders are post-issue procedural steps.
2Under CPR Part 11, within how many days of filing an Acknowledgment of Service must a defendant file an application to dispute the court's jurisdiction?
A.14 days
B.7 days
C.28 days
D.56 days
Explanation: CPR 11(4) stipulates that a defendant who files an Acknowledgment of Service indicating an intention to contest jurisdiction must apply within 14 days after filing the Acknowledgment of Service. Failure to apply within this timeframe means the defendant is treated as having accepted the court's jurisdiction.
3What is the legal test applied by the court when determining an application for summary judgment under CPR Part 24?
A.The respondent has no real prospect of succeeding/defending and there is no other compelling reason why the disposal of the claim should be at trial
B.The applicant has proven their case beyond all reasonable doubt on documentary evidence alone
C.The respondent has acted dishonestly or committed an abuse of process during pre-action correspondence
D.The claim involves complex questions of law that require an immediate determination by a High Court judge
Explanation: CPR 24.3 sets out that summary judgment may be given against a claimant or defendant if the court considers that the party has no real prospect of succeeding on the claim or issue, or successfully defending it, and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial. The test is realistic, not fanciful, prospect of success.
4Under CPR 3.4(2), which of the following is an explicit ground for the court to strike out a statement of case?
A.The statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim
B.The claim exceeds the financial limit of the County Court and must be heard in the High Court
C.The claimant failed to accept a Part 36 offer within the 21-day relevant period
D.The defendant intends to call more than two expert witnesses at trial
Explanation: CPR 3.4(2)(a) empowers the court to strike out a statement of case if it discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing or defending the claim. Other grounds under CPR 3.4(2) include abuse of the court's process or failure to comply with a rule, practice direction, or court order.
5Under the Limitation Act 1980, what is the standard limitation period for bringing a claim founded on simple contract?
A.6 years from the date on which the cause of action accrued
B.3 years from the date of the breach of contract
C.12 years from the date of signing the contract
D.6 years from the date the claimant suffered financial hardship
Explanation: Section 5 of the Limitation Act 1980 provides that an action founded on simple contract shall not be brought after the expiration of 6 years from the date on which the cause of action accrued (which is the date of breach).
6Under CPR Part 31, what defines a 'standard disclosure' order in claims outside the Business and Property Courts?
A.Disclosure of documents on which a party relies, documents which adversely affect their case or another party's case, or support another party's case
B.Disclosure of every document ever created by either party relating to the subject matter of the dispute
C.Disclosure restricted exclusively to documents which the court requests following a preliminary hearing
D.Disclosure of privileged legal advice obtained prior to the commencement of formal litigation
Explanation: CPR 31.6 states that standard disclosure requires a party to disclose only: (a) the documents on which he relies; and (b) the documents which (i) adversely affect his own case; (ii) adversely affect another party's case; or (iii) support another party's case; and (c) documents required by a practice direction.
7A claimant issued a commercial breach of contract claim 5 years after breach. Discovery during proceedings revealed the defendant deliberately concealed the breach. How does Section 32 of the Limitation Act 1980 operate in this situation?
A.The 6-year limitation period does not begin to run until the claimant discovered the concealment or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it
B.The claim is automatically time-barred because the 6-year absolute limitation period runs strictly from the date of contract formation
C.The court has statutory discretion under Section 33 of the Limitation Act 1980 to disapply limitation in any contract claim
D.The limitation period is extended by a fixed period of 12 months from the date the Defendant filed a Defence
Explanation: Under Section 32(1)(b) of the Limitation Act 1980, where any fact relevant to the claimant's cause of action has been deliberately concealed by the defendant, the period of limitation does not begin to run until the claimant has discovered the concealment or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it. Section 33 discretion applies only to personal injury/death claims, not contract.
8A claimant seeks to serve a claim form on a foreign corporate defendant in Dubai (UAE) without prior court permission. Under CPR Part 6 and Practice Direction 6B, when is service out of the jurisdiction permitted without court leave?
A.When the claim falls within a statutory gateway under CPR rule 6.33, such as where the contract contains an exclusive choice of English court jurisdiction
B.Whenever the claimant's solicitor certifies that damages claimed exceed £500,000
C.Service out of the jurisdiction without court permission is never permitted under English civil procedure
D.Whenever the foreign defendant maintains an active social media account operated from London
Explanation: Under CPR 6.33, a claimant may serve a claim form out of the jurisdiction without court permission if the court has power to determine the claim under the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982 or where the contract contains an English choice of court clause meeting the criteria of rule 6.33. Otherwise, permission under CPR 6.36 and Practice Direction 6B gateways is required.
9In a complex commercial action in the High Court, a defendant applies for security for costs under CPR 25.12 against a limited company claimant. Which threshold requirement under CPR 25.13 must the defendant establish?
A.There is reason to believe that the corporate claimant will be unable to pay the defendant's costs if ordered to do so
B.The claimant has failed to achieve an 80% success rate in prior interlocutory applications
C.The claimant company is incorporated outside the City of London financial district
D.The claimant has refused to enter into a non-binding mediation process prior to disclosure
Explanation: Under CPR 25.13(2)(c), one of the statutory grounds for granting security for costs against a corporate claimant is that there is reason to believe that the company will be unable to pay the defendant's costs if ordered to do so. The court must also consider it just to make the order in all the circumstances.
10Under Practice Direction 57AD (Disclosure in the Business and Property Courts), what is the key distinction between Extended Disclosure Model C and Model D?
A.Model C requires disclosure of specific proposed requests or narrow classes of documents, whereas Model D requires disclosure of documents likely to support or adversely affect cases on Issues for Disclosure following a reasonable search
B.Model C mandates automated AI document review, while Model D mandates manual paralegal inspection
C.Model C applies exclusively to fraud allegations, whereas Model D applies exclusively to breach of warranty claims
D.Model C requires disclosure of privileged legal advice, whereas Model D preserves litigation privilege
Explanation: Under PD 57AD, Model C is request-led disclosure of specific documents or narrow classes of documents relating to an Issue for Disclosure. Model D is broader search-based disclosure requiring a party to disclose documents that support or adversely affect its case or another party's case on an Issue for Disclosure.
About the CILEX CPQ P2 Dispute Resolution Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for CILEX CPQ Professional Stage P2 Dispute Resolution Law and Practice is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.