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100+ Free CILEX CPQ Advanced A2 Criminal Law & Litigation Practice Questions
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2026 Statistics
Key Facts: CILEX CPQ Advanced A2 Criminal Law & Litigation Exam
100
Practice Questions
OpenExamPrep
50%
Passing Score
CILEX Assessment Specs
£350–£450
Exam Fee
CILEX Fee Schedule
3 hours
Time Limit
CILEX CPQ Overview
150 hours
Module TQT
CILEX Specification
CILEX
Exam Provider
CILEX
CILEX CPQ Advanced A2 Criminal Law and Litigation prepares candidates for criminal legal practice in England and Wales. The official assessment is an online automated & scenario case study exam provided by CILEX with an exam fee of £350–£450 and a 50% passing score. Our practice bank provides an English-language MCQ study adaptation featuring 100 scenario-based questions across core offences, defences, police detention, court procedure, evidence, sentencing, and appeals.
Sample CILEX CPQ Advanced A2 Criminal Law & Litigation Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your CILEX CPQ Advanced A2 Criminal Law & Litigation exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1D intentioned to cause serious bodily harm to V by striking V with a heavy iron bar during an altercation. V later dies in hospital from the head injuries sustained. Which offence has D committed under English criminal law?
A.Murder
B.Voluntary manslaughter
C.Unlawful act manslaughter
D.Gross negligence manslaughter
Explanation: Under the common law of England and Wales, murder is established when the defendant unlawfully causes the death of a human being under the King's peace with malice aforethought. Malice aforethought includes an intention to kill or an intention to cause grievous bodily harm (GBH), as confirmed in R v Vickers. Because D acted with intent to cause serious bodily harm and V died as a direct result, D is guilty of murder.
2A defendant fires a gun into a crowded room intending only to frighten the occupants, but realizes that death or serious injury is a virtual certainty to result from firing into the crowd. A bystander is struck and killed. Which leading case governs the mens rea for murder regarding oblique intention in this scenario?
A.R v Woollin [1999] 1 AC 82
B.R v Adomako [1995] 1 AC 171
C.R v Church [1966] 1 QB 59
D.R v Cunningham [1957] 2 QB 396
Explanation: R v Woollin establishes the modern test for oblique intention in murder. The jury is entitled to find intention if death or serious bodily harm was a virtual certainty resulting from the defendant's action and the defendant appreciated that fact.
3D unlawfully strikes V in the face with a fist, causing V to fall backward, strike V's head on the pavement, and die instantly. D had no intention to kill or cause GBH. Under what head of homicide is D liable?
A.Unlawful act manslaughter
B.Gross negligence manslaughter
C.Murder
D.Attempted murder
Explanation: Unlawful act manslaughter (constructive manslaughter) requires an intentional, unlawful act (here assault/battery) that is objectively dangerous in that sober and reasonable people would recognize the risk of some harm (R v Church). Because D lacked intent to kill or cause GBH, liability rests in unlawful act manslaughter.
4A landlord fails to service a gas heater in a rented flat despite repeated warnings. A tenant dies of carbon monoxide poisoning. The prosecution asserts breach of a duty of care creating a serious risk of death. What is the test for gross negligence manslaughter established in R v Adomako?
A.Duty of care, breach of duty causing death, serious and obvious risk of death, and negligence so gross as to be deemed criminal
B.Subjective recklessness as to causing serious bodily harm
C.Commission of an unlawful act objectively dangerous to life
D.Breach of statutory health and safety regulations creating strict liability for homicide
Explanation: Under R v Adomako, gross negligence manslaughter requires: (1) a duty of care owed by the defendant to the victim, (2) a breach of that duty causing death, (3) that the breach involved a serious and obvious risk of death (R v Rose), and (4) that the defendant's conduct was so exceptionally bad as to amount to a crime.
5D intentionally raises a clenched fist at V from two feet away, shouting 'I am going to break your nose right now!' V reasonably believes D is about to hit V immediately. D does not make physical contact. What offence has D committed?
A.Assault (common assault under s.39 Criminal Justice Act 1988)
B.Battery (common assault under s.39 Criminal Justice Act 1988)
C.Assault occasioning actual bodily harm under s.47 OAPA 1861
D.Affray under s.3 Public Order Act 1986
Explanation: An assault (technical assault) occurs when the defendant intentionally or recklessly causes the victim to apprehend immediate unlawful personal violence (R v Ireland). Raising a fist accompanied by immediate threats causes V to apprehend immediate violence, establishing assault under s.39 CJA 1988.
6D pushes V during an argument. V falls onto a wooden coffee table, sustaining extensive bruising and a minor laceration requiring stitches. What is the minimum non-fatal offence against the person D has committed?
A.Assault occasioning actual bodily harm under s.47 Offences Against the Person Act 1861
B.Common battery under s.39 Criminal Justice Act 1988
C.Wounding or causing grievous bodily harm under s.20 OAPA 1861
D.Wounding with intent under s.18 OAPA 1861
Explanation: Actual bodily harm under s.47 OAPA 1861 includes any hurt or injury calculated to interfere with the health or comfort of the victim that is more than transient and trifling (R v Miller). Bruising and a laceration requiring stitches constitute ABH caused by D's unlawful battery.
7D slashes V across the arm with a broken glass bottle, splitting the outer and inner layers of V's skin and causing heavy bleeding. D foresaw that V would suffer some physical harm but did not intend really serious harm. Which offence has D committed?
A.Malicious wounding under s.20 Offences Against the Person Act 1861
B.Wounding with intent under s.18 Offences Against the Person Act 1861
C.Assault occasioning actual bodily harm under s.47 OAPA 1861
D.Attempted murder under s.1 Criminal Attempts Act 1981
Explanation: A wound requires a continuity of the skin to be broken (both dermis and epidermis, JJC v Eisenhower). Section 20 OAPA 1861 requires proof of a wound or GBH accompanied by malice (recklessness as to causing some harm, R v Mowatt). Because D foresaw some harm but lacked specific intent to cause GBH, s.20 is the correct offence.
8What intent (mens rea) must the prosecution prove to establish liability for wounding or causing grievous bodily harm under Section 18 of the Offences Against the Person Act 1861?
A.Intent to cause grievous bodily harm or intent to resist or prevent the lawful apprehension/detention of any person
B.Subjective foresight of some physical harm
C.Intent to cause actual bodily harm
D.Gross negligence as to causing life-threatening injury
Explanation: Section 18 OAPA 1861 is a specific intent offence requiring proof that the defendant intended to cause grievous bodily harm or intended to resist or prevent the lawful apprehension or detainer of any person. Foresight of harm or recklessness is insufficient for s.18.
9D picks up a coat lying on a bench in a café believing it belongs to D's friend. D intends to return it to the friend. In fact, the coat belongs to a stranger, V. Has D committed theft under Section 1 of the Theft Act 1968?
A.No, because D is not dishonest under s.2(1)(a) Theft Act 1968 if D honestly believes D has a legal right to take it on behalf of the owner
B.Yes, because picking up the coat constitutes an immediate physical appropriation
C.Yes, because the coat belonged to another in fact
D.No, but D is liable for strict liability trespass to goods
Explanation: Theft under s.1(1) Theft Act 1968 requires dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with intent to permanently deprive. Under s.2(1)(a), a person's appropriation is not to be regarded as dishonest if they appropriate property in the belief that they have in law the right to deprive the other of it.
10Which leading test governs dishonesty in criminal proceedings in England and Wales following Ivey v Genting Casinos [2017] UKSC 67 and R v Barton & Booth [2020] EWCA Crim 575?
A.Ascertain the defendant's actual state of knowledge or belief as to the facts, then determine whether their conduct was dishonest by the standards of ordinary decent people
B.Determine whether the defendant appreciated that their conduct was dishonest according to the standards of reasonable and honest people
C.Apply a purely objective test ignoring the defendant's genuine subjective beliefs
D.Determine whether the defendant acted contrary to statutory financial regulations
Explanation: The Ivey/Barton test for dishonesty has two stages: (1) subjective: ascertain the actual state of the individual's knowledge or belief as to the facts, and (2) objective: determine whether their conduct was honest or dishonest by applying the standards of ordinary decent people.
About the CILEX CPQ Advanced A2 Criminal Law & Litigation Practice Questions
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