100+ Free Module 7 Maintenance Practices Practice Questions

Pass your UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 7 — Maintenance Practices exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

100+ Questions

100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More UK CAA Part-66 AME Licence Modules

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 1 — Mathematics

Practice Questions100 questions

UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 10 — Aviation Legislation

Practice Questions100 questions

UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 11A — Turbine Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems

Practice Questions100 questions

UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 12 — Helicopter Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems

Practice Questions100 questions

UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 13 — Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems (Avionics)

Practice Questions100 questions

UK CAA Part-66 AME Module 14 — Propulsion

Practice Questions100 questions

Sample Module 7 Maintenance Practices Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Module 7 Maintenance Practices exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1If Skydrol hydraulic fluid comes into contact with an engineer's eyes during maintenance, what immediate first aid action must be taken?

A.Flush the eyes immediately with copious amounts of clean water for at least 15 minutes

B.Neutralise the fluid by applying a mild isopropyl alcohol solution to the eyes

C.Wipe the eyes firmly with a clean petroleum-soaked lint-free rag

D.Cover the eyes with a dry sterile bandage without washing to prevent further contamination

Explanation: Skydrol is a phosphate ester hydraulic fluid that causes severe chemical irritation and burning to skin and mucous membranes. Immediate flushing with large quantities of clean, low-pressure water for at least 15 minutes is the critical first-aid procedure, followed by medical evaluation.

2Which type of fire extinguisher is safest and most effective for use on an electrical fire in an avionics rack?

A.Carbon dioxide (CO2) or Halon / BCF

B.Water jacket or pressurized water spray

C.Standard protein foam

D.Wet chemical (potassium acetate)

Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Halon/BCF (bromochlorodifluoromethane) are non-conductive, clean extinguishing agents that smother Class C (electrical) fires without leaving conductive or corrosive residue that would ruin sensitive electronic equipment.

3Why is it strictly prohibited to allow oil, grease, or hydrocarbon lubricants to come into contact with high-pressure gaseous oxygen components?

A.Oil and grease can spontaneously ignite or explode in the presence of pure high-pressure oxygen

B.Hydrocarbons react with oxygen to form corrosive nitric acid that eats through stainless steel lines

C.Grease absorbs oxygen gas, causing severe pressure drop in the crew emergency oxygen system

D.Hydrocarbons freeze at altitude and block the narrow orifices of oxygen regulators

Explanation: High-pressure gaseous oxygen dramatically lowers the ignition temperature of hydrocarbons. Even trace amounts of oil or grease can undergo violent spontaneous combustion or detonation upon contact with pure oxygen under pressure.

4When servicing an aircraft accumulator or strut with high-pressure gaseous nitrogen, what safety device must always be fitted to the supply cylinder?

A.A pressure-reducing regulator with an over-pressure relief valve

B.A high-flow venturi restrictor nozzle

C.An inline oil-mist lubricator

D.A flash-back arrestor designed for acetylene gas

Explanation: Nitrogen storage cylinders are pressurized up to 200 bar (approx 3000 psi). Servicing equipment requires a dedicated pressure-reducing regulator and safety relief valve to lower cylinder pressure to the safe working limit of the aircraft component and prevent explosive rupture.

5Which precautions must be observed when handling Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) sensitive avionic Line Replaceable Units (LRUs)?

A.Wear a conductive wrist strap connected via a 1-megohm resistor to an approved ground point

B.Ensure all pins on the LRU connector are bridged using uninsulated copper wire

C.Clean connector contacts with dry compressed shop air prior to installation

D.Store LRUs in clear low-density polyethylene bags without anti-static coating

Explanation: ESD protective handling requires engineers to wear a grounded conductive wrist strap containing a 1 MΩ safety resistor (to protect personnel against electric shock while bleeding off static charges safely).

6A fire involving burning aircraft magnesium wheel hubs or titanium engine components is classified as which class of fire, and requires which extinguishing agent?

A.Class D fire; extinguished with specialized dry powder such as Pyromet or Met-L-X

B.Class B fire; extinguished with AFFF aqueous film-forming foam

C.Class C fire; extinguished with carbon dioxide (CO2)

D.Class A fire; extinguished with pressurized water spray

Explanation: Combustible metal fires (magnesium, titanium, sodium) are Class D fires. Water, foam, CO2, and standard dry chemicals react violently or dissociate under extreme temperatures; specialized Class D dry powders (Pyromet, Met-L-X) act by smothering and crusting over the burning metal.

7Prior to carrying out maintenance inside an aircraft main landing gear wheel well, what mandatory safety precautions must be completed?

A.Install ground safety lock pins in the gear links and isolate/tag out hydraulic system pressure

B.Depressurize main landing gear shock struts to the fully compressed position

C.Disconnect the main battery and remove all electrical circuit breakers in the cockpit

D.Apply grease to all exposed gear retract cylinder piston rods

Explanation: To prevent accidental gear retraction or door movement, mechanical ground lock pins must be installed in all landing gear side-braces/over-centre links, and hydraulic systems affecting gear/doors must be depressurised and tagged out.

8Under UK health and safety regulations (Control of Noise at Work Regulations), at what lower exposure action value must hearing protection be made available to maintenance personnel?

A.80 dBA daily or weekly noise exposure level

B.95 dBA daily or weekly noise exposure level

C.110 dBA peak sound pressure level

D.70 dBA continuous background level

Explanation: The Lower Exposure Action Value is a daily or weekly personal noise exposure of 80 dBA (and a peak sound pressure of 135 dBC). At this level, employers must provide suitable hearing protection to workers who request it and provide training.

9What is the primary technical difference between aircraft electrical 'bonding' and aircraft 'earthing' (grounding)?

A.Bonding provides low-resistance electrical paths between metal components to equalize potential; earthing connects the aircraft structure to earth ground during refueling or maintenance

B.Bonding protects against AC voltage spikes, whereas earthing dissipates high-voltage DC static charges

C.Bonding is used exclusively for composite structures, while earthing is used only on aluminum airframes

D.Bonding connects the battery negative terminal to the engine casing; earthing connects the avionics rack to the radio antenna

Explanation: Bonding ensures electrical continuity across structural parts of the aircraft to equalize static potential and prevent RF interference or sparking. Earthing (grounding) connects the airframe directly to a physical earth electrode on the hangar floor or apron during refueling and maintenance.

10When charging a gaseous oxygen cylinder, why must the filling rate be kept strictly slow and controlled?

A.Rapid filling causes heat of compression (adiabatic heating), which can exceed the ignition temperature of valve seals or contaminants

B.Fast gas flow induces severe chemical degradation of the stainless steel braided filling hose

C.High flow rates cause the gaseous oxygen to condense into liquid oxygen, bursting the storage bottle

D.Rapid gas expansion cools the cylinder wall below its brittle transition temperature, causing structural cracking

Explanation: Rapidly pressurizing an oxygen system causes rapid gas compression (adiabatic compression), which generates intense localized heat. This heat can easily ignite synthetic valve seats, O-rings, or microscopic particulate contamination.

About the Module 7 Maintenance Practices Exam

UK CAA Part-66 Module 7 (Maintenance Practices) is a fundamental examination for candidates pursuing Category B1 (Mechanical) or Category B2 (Avionics) Aircraft Maintenance Engineer licences in the UK. The syllabus covers shop safety, tool usage and calibration, precision measurements, engineering drawing standards, limits and fits, sheet metal riveting, destructive material testing, non-destructive testing (NDT), aircraft towing/jacking, and Part-145 documentation procedures including Certificate of Release to Service (CRS).

Questions

80 scored questions

Time Limit

100 minutes

Passing Score

75%

Exam Fee

£75 (UK Civil Aviation Authority (CAA))

Module 7 Maintenance Practices Exam Content Outline

15%

Safety Precautions & Workshop Practices

Hangar safety, PPE, high pressure gases, electricity/ESD, oils, Skydrol, fire protection, LOTO, tool control and calibration.

18%

Tools & Precision Measuring Instruments

Hand tools, power tools, micrometers, vernier calipers, dial test indicators, torque wrenches and torque extension calculations.

14%

Engineering Drawings, Fits & Clearances

Drawing types, first/third angle projections, dimensions, tolerances, ATA 100, limits and fits, hole/shaft basis systems, clearances.

14%

Riveting & Sheet Metal Techniques

Rivet alloy selection, identification markings, pitch, edge distance, row pitch, countersinking vs dimpling, and sheet metal repairs.

15%

Material Testing & Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

Tensile, hardness, impact testing; visual inspection, dye penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, and radiography.

12%

Aircraft Handling, Jacking & Storage

Towing safety, nose wheel disconnect, jacking procedures, safety collars, mooring, de-icing/anti-icing fluids, holdover times, and storage.

12%

Disassembly, Assembly & Maintenance Procedures

Locking devices, split pins, wire locking, stiff nuts, Part-145 maintenance documentation, CRS issuing, tech logs, and defect reporting.

How to Pass the Module 7 Maintenance Practices Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75%
Exam length: 80 questions
Time limit: 100 minutes
Exam fee: £75

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Module 7 Maintenance Practices Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master torque extension math: ensure you know how adapter length affects indicated vs actual torque.

2Memorise rivet head markings and material codes (e.g. AD is 2117 dimple, DD is 2024 double dash).

3Learn NDT method restrictions: dye penetrant for surface-breaking, magnetic particle for ferromagnetic only, eddy current for conductive metals.

4Understand Part-145 CRS privileges: who can sign a CRS and what records must be kept for 3 years.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format and pass mark for UK CAA Module 7?

The UK CAA Part-66 Module 7 examination consists of 80 multiple-choice questions for Category B1 (or 60 MCQs for Category B2), sat over 100 minutes (or 75 minutes). The pass mark is strictly 75%.

Does Module 7 require a practical assessment?

While the basic knowledge e-exam is multiple-choice, candidates must also complete practical training and log maintenance experience in an approved Part-145 organisation before licence issuance.

What precision measurement skills are tested in Module 7?

Candidates are tested on reading micrometers, vernier calipers, dial test indicators (DTI), calculating torque wrench extensions, and applying limits and fits.

How are NDT techniques examined?

Questions cover the physical principles, application scope, limitations, and safety requirements of Liquid Penetrant, Magnetic Particle, Eddy Current, Ultrasonic, and Radiographic testing.