PracticeVideosBlogFlashcards
All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for KROK 2 Medicine

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Exam Review

Key Facts: KROK 2 Medicine Exam

150

Exam Questions

Testing Center MOH Ukraine

150 / 180 min

Test Duration

Testing Center: Ukrainian / foreign citizens

64.0%

Passing Criterion

MOH Order No. 1898

KROK 2 General Medicine is the 150-question clinical licensing examination administered by the Testing Center of the Ministry of Health of Ukraine for graduating sixth-year medical students, requiring a 64.0% passing score.

Sample KROK 2 Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the KROK 2 Medicine exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe, crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and jaw that began 90 minutes ago. The pain is accompanied by diaphoresis, nausea, and shortness of breath. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST-segment depression in leads I and aVL. His blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg and pulse is 76 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive reperfusion strategy?
A.Immediate coronary angiography with primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
B.Intravenous thrombolysis with tenecteplase administered over 12 hours
C.Urgent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) after 48 hours of medical stabilization
D.Conservative medical management with unfractionated heparin infusion and oral beta-blockers alone
Explanation: This patient presents with an acute inferior wall ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) within the golden reperfusion window (< 12 hours from symptom onset). Guidelines from ESC and ACC/AHA establish primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) as the preferred reperfusion strategy when it can be performed expeditiously by an experienced team. Primary PCI restores coronary patency and significantly reduces mortality compared to medical therapy.
2A 64-year-old female with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents for follow-up. An echocardiogram demonstrates a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 32%. She reports persistent dyspnea when climbing one flight of stairs (NYHA functional class II) despite taking optimal doses of enalapril and bisoprolol. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 118/74 mmHg, pulse of 68 bpm, clear lungs, and trace bilateral pedal edema. Serum potassium is 4.3 mmol/L and estimated GFR is 62 mL/min/1.73 m². According to clinical practice guidelines for chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), which medication class should be added next to reduce mortality?
A.Loop diuretic (e.g., high-dose furosemide) as monotherapy substitution
B.Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (e.g., spironolactone)
C.Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g., diltiazem)
D.Cardiac glycoside (e.g., digoxin) titrated to maximum serum concentration
Explanation: In patients with symptomatic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF <= 40%) already receiving an ACE inhibitor (or ARNI) and a beta-blocker, guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) mandates the addition of a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA, such as spironolactone or eplerenone) and an SGLT2 inhibitor to reduce all-cause mortality and hospitalizations. The patient's normal serum potassium and adequate renal function make spironolactone safe and indicated.
3A 42-year-old male with a history of congenital bicuspid aortic valve presents with a 3-week history of remittent fever (up to 38.8°C), chills, night sweats, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. On examination, a new early diastolic blowing murmur is auscultated along the left sternal border. Fundoscopic examination reveals retinal hemorrhages with pale centers (Roth spots), and subungual splinter hemorrhages are visible on several fingers. Transesophageal echocardiography demonstrates a 12-mm mobile oscillating mass on the aortic valve leaflets associated with moderate aortic regurgitation. Blood cultures grew penicillin-susceptible viridans group streptococci. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antimicrobial regimen?
A.Intravenous ciprofloxacin plus metronidazole
B.Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate monotherapy
C.Intravenous penicillin G or ceftriaxone for a four-week course
D.Intravenous fluconazole plus amphotericin B
Explanation: The positive blood cultures and aortic-valve vegetation support definite native-valve infective endocarditis. For penicillin-susceptible viridans group streptococci, standard therapy is intravenous penicillin G or ceftriaxone for four weeks. A two-week beta-lactam plus gentamicin regimen is an option only for selected uncomplicated native-valve infection with normal renal function; routine gentamicin is not required for the four-week regimen.
4A 71-year-old male with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a prior ischemic stroke 2 years ago presents with palpitations and mild fatigue. An ECG confirms non-valvular atrial fibrillation with an irregularly irregular ventricular response averaging 112 bpm. His blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg. An echocardiogram shows mild left atrial enlargement and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 52%. What is this patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score and what is the definitive guideline recommendation regarding thromboprophylaxis?
A.CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1; no antithrombotic therapy is required due to adequate ventricular rate control
B.CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2; antiplatelet monotherapy with aspirin is sufficient
C.CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3; dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is the preferred regimen
D.CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5; oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) is strongly recommended
Explanation: The CHA2DS2-VASc score calculates thromboembolic stroke risk: Congestive heart failure (0), Hypertension (1), Age >= 75 (0), Diabetes mellitus (1), Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2), Vascular disease (0), Age 65-74 (1), Sex category female (0). This patient's score is 1 (HTN) + 1 (DM) + 2 (Stroke) + 1 (Age 71) = 5. In males with a score >= 2, oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran) is strongly recommended (Class I) over antiplatelet therapy to prevent ischemic stroke.
5A 52-year-old female is brought to the resuscitation room with an acute severe throbbing headache, blurred vision, confusion, nausea, and vomiting. Her blood pressure is 225/130 mmHg and heart rate is 92 bpm. Fundoscopic examination reveals bilateral optic disc swelling (papilledema) and flame-shaped hemorrhages. Neurological examination reveals lethargy without focal motor deficits. Serum creatinine is 145 µmol/L (baseline 75 µmol/L). Which diagnosis and initial therapeutic goal are correct?
A.Hypertensive emergency with encephalopathy; reduce mean arterial pressure by no more than 20% to 25% over the first hour using intravenous titratable antihypertensives
B.Hypertensive urgency; immediately lower blood pressure to < 120/80 mmHg within 30 minutes using sublingual nifedipine
C.Ischemic stroke; withhold all blood pressure lowering agents until systolic pressure exceeds 260 mmHg
D.Acute pheochromocytoma crisis; immediately administer high-dose intravenous propranolol monotherapy
Explanation: Hypertensive emergency is defined as severe blood pressure elevation (typically > 180/120 mmHg) accompanied by acute target-organ damage—in this case, hypertensive encephalopathy, bilateral papilledema, and acute kidney injury. The therapeutic goal is rapid but controlled blood pressure reduction using continuous intravenous titratable agents (such as nicardipine, labetalol, or clevidipine), decreasing mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 20-25% within the first hour to prevent cerebral, myocardial, or renal hypoperfusion and infarction.
6A 74-year-old male presents with exertional lightheadedness, dyspnea on exertion, and episodes of retrosternal tightness relieved by rest. On physical examination, the carotid upstroke is weak and delayed (pulsus parvus et tardus). Auscultation reveals a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur heard loudest at the second right intercostal space that radiates into both carotid arteries, and an absent or soft second heart sound (A2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Mitral valve regurgitation
B.Severe calcific aortic stenosis
C.Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
D.Aortic valve regurgitation
Explanation: The classic presentation of severe aortic stenosis includes the symptom triad of dyspnea, angina, and syncope on exertion. Physical examination pathognomonically reveals a delayed and diminished carotid pulse (pulsus parvus et tardus), a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids, and softening or loss of the aortic component of the second heart sound (A2) due to leaflet calcification.
7An 18-year-old athletic male collapses during a high school basketball match. After brief chest compressions and spontaneous recovery of consciousness, he is evaluated in the cardiology clinic. His older brother died suddenly at age 21 while playing soccer. On cardiac auscultation, a grade 3/6 harsh mid-systolic ejection murmur is noted along the lower left sternal border without carotid radiation. Which maneuver will characteristicallly INCREASE the intensity of this patient's murmur, and what is the underlying mechanism?
A.Squatting; increased venous return and afterload increase left ventricular cavity size
B.Sustained handgrip; increased systemic afterload widens the left ventricular outflow tract
C.Valsalva strain phase; decreased left ventricular preload worsens left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) dynamic obstruction
D.Passive leg elevation; increased preload increases the distance between the mitral valve and the hypertrophied septum
Explanation: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) with dynamic left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction produces a systolic murmur caused by turbulence across the narrowed outflow tract exacerbated by systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve. Maneuvers that decrease left ventricular end-diastolic volume (decreased preload or decreased afterload, such as Valsalva strain phase or abrupt standing) reduce the LV cavity size, bringing the anterior mitral leaflet closer to the hypertrophied interventricular septum, thereby worsening dynamic obstruction and increasing murmur intensity.
8A 68-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 4-day history of productive cough with rust-colored sputum, right-sided pleuritic chest pain, fever of 39.1°C, and rigors. On examination, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 96 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. He is fully oriented, and his serum urea is 5.0 mmol/L. Dullness to percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and late inspiratory crackles are present over the right lower lung field. A chest radiograph demonstrates dense right lower lobe lobar consolidation with air bronchograms. What is the most likely pathogen and the appropriate management according to the CURB-65 criteria?
A.Pseudomonas aeruginosa; CURB-65 score is 4, requiring emergency bronchoscopy and mechanical ventilation
B.Mycoplasma pneumoniae; CURB-65 score is 3, requiring immediate intensive care admission
C.Klebsiella pneumoniae; CURB-65 score is 0, requiring no antibiotic therapy
D.Streptococcus pneumoniae; CURB-65 score is 1 (Age >= 65), suitable for outpatient antimicrobial therapy
Explanation: The fever, rust-colored sputum, focal signs, and lobar consolidation favor Streptococcus pneumoniae. CURB-65 gives one point each for confusion, urea > 7 mmol/L, respiratory rate >= 30/min, systolic pressure < 90 mmHg or diastolic pressure <= 60 mmHg, and age >= 65; this patient scores 1 for age alone. A score of 0-1 indicates low mortality risk, so outpatient oral antibiotic treatment can be appropriate if clinical assessment and home circumstances support it.
9A 66-year-old male with a 45-pack-year smoking history and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD, GOLD stage 3) presents to the emergency department with acute worsening of dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and sputum purulence. On physical examination, he is tachypneic at 28 breaths/min, using accessory respiratory muscles, with diffuse expiratory wheezes and distant breath sounds. Arterial blood gas (ABG) on 2 L/min nasal cannula reveals: pH 7.28, PaCO2 64 mmHg, PaO2 56 mmHg, and HCO3- 29 mmol/L. In addition to inhaled short-acting bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids, and antibiotics, which intervention is most urgently indicated to prevent endotracheal intubation?
A.Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV / BiPAP)
B.High-flow 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask to achieve SpO2 of 100%
C.Immediate intravenous aminophylline bolus followed by continuous infusion
D.Emergency needle thoracostomy in the second right intercostal space
Explanation: This patient has an acute exacerbation of COPD with acute-on-chronic hypercapnic respiratory acidosis (pH 7.28, PaCO2 64 mmHg). Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV, specifically bilevel positive airway pressure / BiPAP) is the evidence-based first-line ventilatory support in patients with acute hypercapnic respiratory failure (pH 7.25-7.35 and PaCO2 > 45 mmHg). NIV reduces the work of breathing, improves gas exchange, decreases the need for invasive mechanical ventilation, and reduces in-hospital mortality.
10A 24-year-old female with persistent asthma is brought to the emergency department in acute respiratory distress. She has been using her albuterol inhaler every 30 minutes without relief. On initial evaluation, she is sitting upright in a tripod position, unable to speak more than single words, sweating profusely, and visibly exhausted. Vital signs: pulse 132 bpm, respiratory rate 36 breaths/min, blood pressure 130/85 mmHg, and pulsus paradoxus of 22 mmHg. On auscultation, breath sounds are barely audible with virtually no wheezing ('silent chest'). An arterial blood gas on room air shows: pH 7.34, PaCO2 44 mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3- 23 mmol/L. What does this arterial blood gas result signify in this clinical setting?
A.Excellent hyperventilation indicating satisfactory compensatory gas exchange
B.Impending respiratory muscle fatigue and respiratory failure requiring immediate preparation for endotracheal intubation
C.Resolution of bronchospasm following endogenous catecholamine release
D.Primary metabolic acidosis with appropriate compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Explanation: During an acute severe asthma attack, severe tachypnea and hyperventilation typically produce hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2 and high pH). A 'normal' PaCO2 (40-44 mmHg) or pseudonormalization in an acutely exhausted patient with a 'silent chest' is an ominous sign indicating that respiratory muscle fatigue has set in and the patient can no longer sustain the required minute ventilation. This represents impending respiratory arrest, mandating intensive care admission and immediate preparation for advanced airway management.

About the KROK 2 Medicine Exam

Independent practice questions for KROK 2 General Medicine, the clinical-stage licensing exam for sixth-year medical students in Ukraine.

Exam sponsor: ДНТ «Центр якості освіти МОЗ» (Testing Center of the Ministry of Health of Ukraine). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Stage 2 Unified State Qualification Examination (ЄДКІ) integrated test comprising 150 single-best-answer MCQs; university graduation also entails the Objective Structured Practical (Clinical) Examination (OSCE / ОСП(К)І) in the sixth year.

Time Limit

150 min (180 min for foreign students)

Passing Score

64.0%

Exam / Certification Fees

Ordinary exam costs are covered by state funding for state-funded students or included in tuition for fee-paying students. Universities arrange payment to the Testing Center. During martial law, up to two retakes are allowed at the learner's expense. Overseas certification centres set their own sitting charges, payable by the learner. Confirm the applicable amount with your university and test centre.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

46%

Diagnosis and Investigation

Establishing preliminary and clinical diagnoses, selecting laboratory and instrumental investigations, and interpreting results across the clinical conditions in the Medicine outline.

34%

Treatment, Prevention and Immunoprophylaxis

Principles of treatment and prevention for blood, nervous system, sensory organ, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, skin, musculoskeletal, endocrine, infectious, obstetric and gynecological diseases.

20%

Emergencies and Urgent Care

Recognition and management of neurological, sensory organ, cardiovascular, respiratory, abdominal, urinary, endocrine, psychiatric and obstetric emergencies, plus trauma, poisoning, shock and other urgent conditions.

Preparing for the KROK 2 Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 64.0%
  • Assessment: Stage 2 Unified State Qualification Examination (ЄДКІ) integrated test comprising 150 single-best-answer MCQs; university graduation also entails the Objective Structured Practical (Clinical) Examination (OSCE / ОСП(К)І) in the sixth year.
  • Time limit: 150 min (180 min for foreign students)
  • Exam / certification fees: Ordinary exam costs are covered by state funding for state-funded students or included in tuition for fee-paying students. Universities arrange payment to the Testing Center. During martial law, up to two retakes are allowed at the learner's expense. Overseas certification centres set their own sitting charges, payable by the learner. Confirm the applicable amount with your university and test centre. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

KROK 2 Medicine: Suggested Study Strategy

1Review clinical management algorithms for common cardiovascular emergencies including STEMI, unstable angina, and acute heart failure.
2Understand differential diagnosis for acute abdomen and indications for emergency surgical exploration.
3Master pediatric milestones, neonatal resuscitation guidelines, and childhood immunization schedules.
4Focus on obstetric complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, postpartum hemorrhage, and ectopic pregnancy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is KROK 2 Medicine in Ukraine?

KROK 2 Medicine is the clinical disciplines test component of Stage 2 of the Unified State Qualification Examination (ЄДКІ), taken in the sixth year of medical school for the specialty 'Medicine' (Лікувальна справа). Graduation also requires passing the practical clinical OSCE examination.

What is the passing score for KROK 2 Medicine?

The Testing Center of the Ministry of Health of Ukraine establishes a passing criterion of 64.0% correct answers.

How long is the KROK 2 Medicine examination?

The official exam duration is 150 minutes for Ukrainian citizens (1 minute per question for 150 questions) and 180 minutes for foreign students.

Is this practice resource an official KROK translation?

This is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation on tested topics. The published Ukrainian booklet uses five options per question, while our practice bank uses four options. It is not an official translation or format simulation and does not replace official university clinical rotations or the practical clinical OSCE examination.

What fees apply to the KROK 2 Medicine examination?

Under CMU Resolution No. 334, ordinary exam costs for state-funded students are covered within the state budget; costs for fee-paying students are included in tuition. Universities pay the Testing Center under institutional contracts. During martial law, Resolution No. 1327 of 22 October 2025 allows up to two learner-funded retakes. Candidates sitting abroad also pay the charge set by their certification centre. Confirm your applicable amount with your university and test centre; there is no single amount stated here for every cohort and location.