Is the examination a 150-question, three-hour MCQ test?

Those universal specifications were not verified. The Council's guideline says that format and extent may vary with qualification and category. Use the current official sitting instructions.

Candidates must complete provisional-registration requirements before internship. MCT describes one year of rotational internship for medical-doctor interns, with medicine, surgery, paediatrics/child health and obstetrics/gynaecology rotations. Other professions have their own requirements.

What are the official assessment languages?

An explicit delivery/response-language policy was not verified. The BAKITA Swahili-proficiency requirement for non-Tanzanian applicants is not proof of the examination's language options. Confirm those options with MCT; this study bank is in English.

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Sample MCT Pre-Internship Exam Practice Questions

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1Which medicine is the first-line parenteral treatment for severe malaria in Tanzania?

A.Intravenous quinine

B.Intravenous or intramuscular artesunate

C.Intramuscular artemether

D.Intravenous chloroquine

Explanation: Parenteral artesunate is recommended for severe malaria. Patients also require urgent supportive care, monitoring and completion of an appropriate oral combination course when able to take it.

2Which investigation can detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex and rifampicin resistance directly in a respiratory specimen?

A.Chest radiography

B.Tuberculin skin testing

C.An appropriate WHO-recommended molecular assay such as Xpert MTB/RIF

D.An acid-fast smear alone

Explanation: Xpert MTB/RIF is a molecular test that detects tuberculosis-complex DNA and markers of rifampicin resistance. Imaging, immune-sensitization tests and smear microscopy do not provide that same combined result.

3What most clearly distinguishes a hypertensive emergency from severe hypertension without an emergency?

A.A history of missed tablets

B.A single elevated blood-pressure measurement

C.A mild headache alone

D.Evidence of acute hypertension-related target-organ injury

Explanation: The defining concern is acute injury to organs such as the brain, heart or kidneys. Blood-pressure elevation alone does not establish a hypertensive emergency.

4A patient develops acute kidney injury after prolonged septic shock. Urine microscopy shows numerous muddy brown granular casts and tubular epithelial cells. Which diagnosis is most strongly supported?

A.Acute tubular injury

B.Isolated reversible prerenal azotaemia without tubular injury

C.An uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection

D.A purely mechanical ureteric obstruction

Explanation: This sediment supports acute tubular injury, often called acute tubular necrosis, in the setting of sepsis and hypoperfusion. The findings should be interpreted with the clinical history; a fractional sodium-excretion cutoff alone is not definitive.

5A patient with ketoacidosis has sodium 128, chloride 96 and bicarbonate 8 mmol/L. Using anion gap = sodium − (chloride + bicarbonate), without potassium, what is the anion gap?

A.14 mmol/L

B.24 mmol/L

C.38 mmol/L

D.18 mmol/L

Explanation: Add chloride and bicarbonate to obtain 104 mmol/L. Subtracting from sodium gives 128 − 104 = 24 mmol/L; this calculation uses the measured sodium and the stated formula.

6Palpation in the left lower abdominal quadrant elicits pain in the right iliac fossa in a patient with suspected appendicitis. What is this finding called?

A.Murphy's sign

B.Cullen's sign

C.Rovsing's sign

D.Grey Turner's sign

Explanation: This is Rovsing's sign, a finding that can support appendiceal or right-sided peritoneal irritation. It is not by itself a definitive diagnosis of appendicitis.

7In a patient with mechanical bowel obstruction, which radiographic appearance favors dilated small bowel?

A.Peripheral loops with incomplete haustral markings

B.A single large pelvic coffee-bean loop

C.Free gas under the diaphragm

D.Central loops with folds traversing the full width of the lumen

Explanation: Valvulae conniventes traverse the full width of small-bowel loops, which commonly lie centrally. The radiograph supports localization but must be interpreted with the clinical assessment.

8For a calculation exercise, use the classic Parkland estimate of 4 mL × kg × percentage TBSA burned. A 60 kg adult has 30% qualifying burns. What volume is calculated for the first 24 hours?

A.7,200 mL

B.3,600 mL

C.10,800 mL

D.5,400 mL

Explanation: The specified calculation is 4 × 60 × 30 = 7,200 mL. This is an initial formula estimate, not a fixed prescription; actual resuscitation must be titrated to the patient and the current burn-care protocol.

9A patient has a very painful irreducible groin hernia, overlying erythema, fever and abdominal guarding. What is the appropriate next step?

A.Repeated forceful manual reduction

B.Urgent resuscitation and surgical assessment for suspected strangulation

C.Elective outpatient review after antibiotics

D.Observation at home if the swelling becomes less painful

Explanation: These features raise concern for strangulation and bowel ischaemia. Urgent surgical management is needed; forceful reduction risks returning compromised bowel without treating its cause.

10After temporal head trauma, a patient briefly recovers consciousness, then deteriorates with an ipsilateral dilated pupil. Which classic lesion and vessel association is most likely?

A.Subdural haematoma and a cortical bridging vein

B.Subarachnoid haemorrhage and a ruptured aneurysm

C.Epidural haematoma and the middle meningeal artery

D.Diffuse axonal injury and the superior sagittal sinus

Explanation: An expanding epidural haematoma is classically associated with middle meningeal arterial injury and may produce a lucid interval. Rapid deterioration requires emergency neuroimaging and neurosurgical management.

About the MCT Pre-Internship Exam Practice Questions

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