MCT describes the post-internship examination for medical, dental and allied health professionals after internship. Applicants must satisfy the current qualification, internship and documentary requirements; foreign qualifications require the applicable evaluation.

Does every profession complete the same one-year internship?

Do not assume identical training across professions. MCT specifies one year of rotational internship for medical-doctor interns. Follow the applicable requirements for your own qualification and professional category.

Are the examination languages confirmed?

An explicit official delivery/response-language policy was not verified. Confirm permitted languages with MCT. This bank is in English and does not claim that an official English sitting or translation is available.

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Sample MCT Post-Internship Exam Practice Questions

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1A patient presents with a new focal neurological deficit suggesting acute stroke. Which initial investigation distinguishes intracranial haemorrhage from ischaemic stroke before selecting acute antithrombotic or reperfusion treatment?

A.Carotid Doppler alone

B.Lumbar puncture before brain imaging

C.Urgent brain imaging, usually non-contrast CT

D.Routine electroencephalography

Explanation: Urgent brain imaging is needed to identify haemorrhage and guide acute stroke treatment. Non-contrast CT is a standard rapid first investigation; suitable MRI is another imaging option where immediately available.

2A 70-year-old with pneumonia is alert. Serum urea is 8.2 mmol/L, respiratory rate 32/min and blood pressure 86/56 mmHg. CURB-65 gives one point each for confusion, urea above 7, respiratory rate at least 30, low blood pressure, and age at least 65. What score and disposition are appropriate?

A.Score 2; consider outpatient treatment after assessment

B.Score 3; arrange hospital assessment

C.Score 5; arrange urgent hospital care

D.Score 4; urgent hospital care for severe pneumonia

Explanation: Urea, respiratory rate, blood pressure and age each contribute one point; confusion contributes none. The score is four, and the hypotension independently reinforces the need for urgent inpatient management.

3An adult has persistent septic shock despite appropriate initial fluid resuscitation and reassessment. Which vasopressor is generally recommended first?

A.Norepinephrine

B.Dobutamine

C.Dopamine

D.Vasopressin

Explanation: Norepinephrine is the standard first-line vasopressor for adult septic shock. It is titrated with monitoring of perfusion, while source control, antimicrobials and individualized fluid management continue.

4An adult with newly diagnosed HIV-associated cryptococcal meningitis starts appropriate antifungal induction treatment. When is ART usually initiated according to WHO guidance?

A.Within the first 24 hours of antifungal treatment

B.After a delay of about four to six weeks from starting antifungal treatment

C.At the end of the first week of antifungal treatment

D.After six months of antifungal treatment

Explanation: WHO recommends deferring ART for four to six weeks in cryptococcal meningitis because immediate initiation increases mortality. Ongoing assessment and management of intracranial pressure and antifungal therapy remain essential.

5A conscious, cooperative patient with an acute COPD exacerbation remains acidotic and hypercapnic despite initial treatment. There is no shock, vomiting or inability to protect the airway. Which ventilatory support is generally preferred initially?

A.High-concentration oxygen alone

B.Immediate endotracheal intubation before considering non-invasive support

C.Non-invasive ventilation with close monitoring and readiness to intubate if it fails

D.Continuous positive airway pressure without inspiratory pressure support

Explanation: NIV is recommended for suitable patients with acute hypercapnic respiratory failure in COPD. Clinical deterioration, inability to protect the airway or NIV failure requires escalation; oxygen should also be carefully titrated.

6Which sequence correctly locates the three phases of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist?

A.Before anaesthesia induction; after skin incision; before leaving the operating room

B.Before skin incision; before wound closure; before leaving the operating room

C.Before anaesthesia induction; before skin incision; after arrival in recovery

D.Before anaesthesia induction; before skin incision; before leaving the operating room

Explanation: The checklist places safety checks before induction, before incision and before the patient leaves the operating room. The team uses these pauses to confirm essential information and anticipate hazards.

7What is recommended regarding hair at an operative site?

A.Leave it unless removal is necessary; use clippers rather than a razor if removal is needed

B.Routinely shave every operative site with a razor the previous evening

C.Routinely clip every operative site even when hair does not interfere

D.Use a razor immediately before skin preparation whenever removal is needed

Explanation: Routine hair removal is not recommended. When necessary, clipping avoids the skin microtrauma associated with razor shaving and helps reduce surgical-site infection risk.

8A postoperative abdominal wound separates and bowel protrudes onto the skin. While summoning urgent surgical help, what should the ward team do?

A.Force the bowel back and tape the wound shut

B.Protect exposed bowel with sterile saline-moistened dressings, keep the patient nil by mouth and prepare for urgent operative care

C.Apply dry adhesive dressings directly to the bowel

D.Give oral fluids before deciding whether surgery is needed

Explanation: Evisceration is a surgical emergency. Protect the bowel from drying and injury, assess and support the patient, and arrange urgent return to theatre without forceful bedside reduction.

9After thyroidectomy, a patient develops an expanding neck haematoma, stridor and rapidly worsening oxygenation. Emergency airway help and oxygen are being provided. What bedside action may be immediately lifesaving?

A.Wait for a neck ultrasound before intervening

B.Treat with steroids alone while observing

C.Urgently open the wound to release the compressing haematoma using the emergency protocol

D.Transport to routine imaging before any decompression

Explanation: An expanding post-thyroidectomy haematoma with airway compromise requires immediate emergency management, including wound opening and evacuation. Airway rescue and urgent definitive surgical haemostasis must be coordinated without imaging delay.

10A septic patient has severe perineal pain, spreading necrosis, bullae and crepitus consistent with Fournier's gangrene. What is central to definitive treatment?

A.Antibiotics alone until the necrotic tissue separates

B.Delay antibiotics and surgery until culture susceptibilities are available

C.Hyperbaric oxygen as a substitute for surgical source control

D.Urgent surgical debridement with resuscitation and broad-spectrum IV antibiotics

Explanation: Fournier's gangrene is a necrotizing soft-tissue infection requiring urgent source control. Antibiotics and supportive treatment are essential but do not replace removal of non-viable tissue.

About the MCT Post-Internship Exam Practice Questions

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