PracticeVideosBlogFlashcards
All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for Avicenna TSMU State Graduation Examination — General Medicine / Имтиҳони хатми давлатӣ (ИХД)

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Exam Review

Key Facts: Avicenna TSMU State Graduation Examination — General Medicine / Имтиҳони хатми давлатӣ (ИХД) Exam

6th Year

General Medicine students sit the ИХД

Avicenna TSMU

5

Published General Medicine question lists

TSMU ИХД page

NTC

2026 test delivered via the National Testing Center

TSMU rector via Pressa.TJ

8

Antenatal contacts in a physiological pregnancy

Tajikistan MoH national standards (2018)

Independent English-language MCQ study adaptation for the Avicenna TSMU 6th-year General Medicine state graduation examination (ИХД). It covers internal medicine, pediatrics, infectious diseases, surgery, and obstetrics/gynaecology from TSMU's published question lists, with Tajikistan-specific items checked against Ministry of Health standards.

Sample Avicenna TSMU State Graduation Examination — General Medicine / Имтиҳони хатми давлатӣ (ИХД) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Avicenna TSMU State Graduation Examination — General Medicine / Имтиҳони хатми давлатӣ (ИХД) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 24-year-old woman is found to have a mild microcytic anemia on routine blood testing. Hemoglobin is 108 g/L, MCV is 66 fL and the red blood cell count is 5.8 x 10^12/L, giving a Mentzer index (MCV divided by RBC count) of about 11.4. Serum ferritin is normal. Which diagnosis best fits these findings?
A.Iron deficiency anemia
B.Beta-thalassemia trait
C.Anemia of chronic disease
D.Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
Explanation: A Mentzer index below 13 favors beta-thalassemia trait: marrow output of small red cells is preserved, so the RBC count is normal or high despite marked microcytosis. A normal ferritin shows that iron stores are adequate, which argues against iron deficiency. Hemoglobin electrophoresis showing a raised HbA2 confirms the diagnosis.
2A 45-year-old woman has had symmetrical pain and swelling of the wrists, MCP and PIP joints for 4 months, with morning stiffness lasting over an hour. Rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies are positive and ESR is 48 mm/h. She has no contraindication to any drug. Which medication is the recommended first-line disease-modifying (basic) therapy?
A.An NSAID alone until erosions appear on X-ray
B.Long-term prednisolone 30 mg daily as the main therapy
C.Methotrexate, with folic acid supplementation
D.A TNF inhibitor before any conventional DMARD
Explanation: Current EULAR recommendations make methotrexate the anchor conventional synthetic DMARD and part of the first treatment strategy in active rheumatoid arthritis, started as soon as the diagnosis is made. Folic acid reduces its gastrointestinal and hepatic side effects. Short-term glucocorticoids may bridge the period until methotrexate takes effect, and biologic agents are added when the treatment target is not reached.
3A 32-year-old woman has petechiae on her legs and gum bleeding after tooth brushing. Platelets are 18 x 10^9/L; hemoglobin, white cell count, PT, aPTT and fibrinogen are normal, and the blood film shows reduced platelets without schistocytes. What is the standard first-line treatment?
A.Emergency splenectomy
B.Oral eltrombopag as the initial treatment
C.Regular prophylactic platelet transfusions
D.Corticosteroids such as prednisone
Explanation: Isolated thrombocytopenia with a normal smear and normal coagulation in an otherwise well adult suggests primary immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). For newly diagnosed adults with a platelet count below 30 x 10^9/L or bleeding, corticosteroids are first-line therapy, with intravenous immunoglobulin added when a rapid rise is needed. Second-line options include thrombopoietin receptor agonists, rituximab and splenectomy.
4A 50-year-old man has fatigue, weight loss and heaviness in the left upper abdomen. The spleen is palpable 8 cm below the costal margin. White cell count is 180 x 10^9/L with the full range of granulocyte precursors (myelocytes, metamyelocytes), basophilia and eosinophilia, and 3% blasts. Cytogenetics shows t(9;22). Which first-line treatment targets the underlying molecular abnormality?
A.Imatinib (a BCR::ABL1 kinase inhibitor)
B.All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)
C.Hydroxyurea as the definitive disease-modifying treatment
D.Rituximab, an anti-CD20 antibody
Explanation: This is chronic myeloid leukemia in chronic phase: massive splenomegaly, neutrophilic leukocytosis with all stages of maturation, basophilia and the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22). The BCR::ABL1 fusion gene encodes a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, and tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as imatinib (or second-generation dasatinib or nilotinib) are first-line therapy. They achieve durable hematologic, cytogenetic and molecular responses in most patients.
5A 58-year-old man arrives at a hospital with an operational catheterization laboratory after 90 minutes of severe substernal pressure radiating to the jaw. ECG shows 3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in I and aVL. What is the preferred reperfusion strategy?
A.IV fibrinolysis, because it is quicker than any catheter procedure
B.Urgent coronary artery bypass grafting as the first choice
C.Primary PCI as soon as possible, ideally within 60–90 minutes
D.Dual antiplatelet therapy alone, with angiography after 72 hours
Explanation: This is an acute inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction, usually from right coronary artery occlusion. When primary PCI can be delivered promptly, it is the preferred reperfusion strategy. ESC guidance aims for wire crossing within 60 minutes of diagnosis when the patient presents to a PCI centre, and ACC/AHA uses a door-to-device target of 90 minutes or less.
6A 62-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 30%) remains in NYHA class III despite optimal doses of enalapril, carvedilol and spironolactone. Blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg and potassium 4.4 mmol/L. Which drug class should be added to complete the four foundational therapies for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A.A nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as verapamil
B.An SGLT2 inhibitor such as dapagliflozin or empagliflozin
C.A class Ic antiarrhythmic such as flecainide
D.A direct renin inhibitor such as aliskiren
Explanation: Current ESC and ACC/AHA guidelines build HFrEF treatment on four pillars that each reduce mortality and hospitalization: an ACE inhibitor/ARB or ARNI, an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Dapagliflozin and empagliflozin benefit patients with or without diabetes, so this patient should receive one.
7Under the European (ESH/ESC) office blood pressure classification used in many national protocols, which range defines grade 1 arterial hypertension?
A.120–129 / 80–84 mmHg
B.130–139 / 85–89 mmHg
C.160–179 / 100–109 mmHg
D.140–159 / 90–99 mmHg
Explanation: In the ESH/ESC office classification, grade 1 hypertension is a systolic pressure of 140–159 mmHg and/or diastolic 90–99 mmHg, confirmed on repeated measurements. Grade 2 is 160–179 and/or 100–109 mmHg, and grade 3 is 180 mmHg or more systolic and/or 110 mmHg or more diastolic.
8A 72-year-old man has had two brief episodes of sudden loss of consciousness with pallor, followed by facial flushing on recovery (Morgagni–Adams–Stokes attacks). ECG shows regular P waves at 80/min and regular broad QRS complexes at 34/min, with no fixed relationship between them. What is the diagnosis and definitive treatment?
A.Complete (third-degree) AV block; permanent pacing
B.Mobitz type I AV block; observation only
C.Sinus bradycardia; stop beta-blockers and observe
D.Atrial flutter with 2:1 block; cardioversion
Explanation: Atria and ventricles beating independently at different rates (AV dissociation), with a slow broad-complex escape rhythm, is complete heart block. The slow ventricular rate causes cerebral hypoperfusion and Morgagni–Adams–Stokes syncope. Atropine, isoprenaline or temporary pacing can bridge an emergency, but permanent pacemaker implantation is the definitive treatment.
9A 68-year-old man has cough, purulent sputum and right-sided pleuritic pain, with right middle lobe consolidation on chest X-ray. He is alert and oriented, respiratory rate is 32/min, blood pressure 105/65 mmHg and serum urea 8.5 mmol/L. What is his CURB-65 score and the recommended care setting?
A.Score 2; short hospital stay or closely supervised outpatient care
B.Score 3; severe pneumonia, so admit and assess for intensive care
C.Score 1; home treatment with oral amoxicillin
D.Score 4; mechanical ventilation is mandatory
Explanation: CURB-65 gives one point each for confusion, urea above 7 mmol/L, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic BP below 90 or diastolic 60 mmHg or less, and age 65 or over. This patient scores for urea, respiratory rate and age, a total of 3. A score of 3 or more indicates severe pneumonia with high mortality risk, requiring hospital admission and assessment for intensive care.
10Which spirometric finding after an inhaled bronchodilator confirms the persistent airflow limitation required to diagnose chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A.An increase in FEV1 of more than 12% and 200 mL
B.FVC below 50% of predicted
C.Total lung capacity below 80% of predicted
D.Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70
Explanation: The GOLD report defines persistent airflow limitation in COPD as a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 in a patient with compatible symptoms and exposures. The FEV1 percentage of predicted is then used to grade the severity of airflow limitation.

About the Avicenna TSMU State Graduation Examination — General Medicine / Имтиҳони хатми давлатӣ (ИХД) Practice Questions

Check the official exam sponsor for the exam format, time limit, passing standard, fees, and eligibility requirements. These details are not yet confirmed here.