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Free Practice Questions for Thai Pharmacy License

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Key Facts: Thai Pharmacy License Exam

240 Questions

Standard item count for the electronic PLE-CC1 examination

Center for Pharmacy Licensure Examination (PLE Center)

7 Domains

Core competency domains tested across pharmaceutical sciences and clinical practice

Pharmacy Council of Thailand Competency Framework

6 hours

Two PLE-CC1 papers of three hours each

PLE Center notice 5/2566, section 4

14 stations

Separate PLE-CC2 professional skills assessment, four minutes per station

PLE Center notice 5/2566, section 5

Independent practice by OpenExamPrep for the Thai Pharmacy Council License (PLE-CC1). This English-language MCQ study adaptation reviews clinical pharmacotherapy, pharmaceutical chemistry, pharmaceutics, herbal medicine, quality assurance, and Thai pharmacy law. It is an independent educational resource and not an official examination simulation.

Sample Thai Pharmacy License Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Thai Pharmacy License exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 99+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus and a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg has a persistent urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) of 180 mg/g. Which antihypertensive drug class is the most appropriate first-line therapy to slow renal disease progression?
A.Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) or ACE inhibitor
B.Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
C.Thiazide-like diuretic
D.Non-selective beta-blocker
Explanation: In patients with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and persistent microalbuminuria (UACR 30–300 mg/g), ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the first-line choice. They preferentially dilate the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus, reducing intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria, thereby retarding diabetic nephropathy progression. Other classes lower systemic blood pressure but do not offer equivalent renal hemodynamic protection as initial monotherapy in albuminuric kidney disease.
2A 64-year-old female with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF 28%) and NYHA class III symptoms is currently receiving Sacubitril/Valsartan and Metoprolol succinate. Her serum potassium is 4.2 mEq/L and eGFR is 52 mL/min/1.73m². Which medication should be added next as part of guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) to reduce cardiovascular mortality?
A.Spironolactone
B.Amlodipine
C.Digoxin
D.Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation: Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF is founded on four pillars: an ARNI/ACEi, an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA such as Spironolactone or Eplerenone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Given her baseline serum potassium of 4.2 mEq/L and eGFR > 30 mL/min/1.73m², adding an MRA significantly reduces all-cause mortality and hospitalizations. Serial monitoring of potassium and renal function is required after initiation.
3A 71-year-old male with non-valvular atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 is initiated on Warfarin. What is the target International Normalized Ratio (INR) range for stroke prevention in this patient?
A.1.5 - 2.0
B.2.0 - 3.0
C.2.5 - 3.5
D.3.0 - 4.0
Explanation: For non-valvular atrial fibrillation, the standard therapeutic target INR for Warfarin is 2.0 to 3.0 (target 2.5). This range optimizes stroke and systemic thromboembolism prevention while minimizing the risk of major hemorrhages. An INR range of 2.5 to 3.5 is reserved for mechanical mitral prosthetic heart valves or mechanical valves with additional thromboembolic risk factors.
4A 55-year-old male undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with drug-eluting stent (DES) placement for an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). In the absence of high bleeding risk or contraindications, what is the recommended antiplatelet regimen and duration?
A.Aspirin plus Ticagrelor for at least 12 months
B.Aspirin monotherapy indefinitely
C.Clopidogrel monotherapy for 6 months followed by Aspirin
D.Aspirin plus Warfarin for 3 months
Explanation: Clinical guidelines for acute coronary syndromes (STEMI) recommend dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) consisting of Aspirin (81–100 mg daily) plus a potent P2Y12 inhibitor such as Ticagrelor (90 mg twice daily) or Prasugrel for at least 12 months following DES placement. Ticagrelor and Prasugrel demonstrate superior ischemic protection and reduction in stent thrombosis compared to Clopidogrel in acute coronary syndromes. DAPT duration may be adjusted if the patient develops major bleeding risks.
5A 62-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 26 mL/min/1.73m². How should her Metformin therapy be adjusted?
A.Discontinue Metformin immediately
B.Maintain the current dose of 1,000 mg twice daily
C.Reduce the dose to 500 mg once daily with meals
D.Switch to immediate-release Metformin 850 mg daily
Explanation: Metformin is cleared primarily unchanged by renal tubular secretion and glomerular filtration. When eGFR falls below 30 mL/min/1.73m², Metformin is strictly contraindicated due to drug accumulation and an increased risk of life-threatening lactic acidosis. If eGFR is between 30 and 45 mL/min/1.73m², dose reduction (maximum 1,000 mg/day) and close monitoring are advised, but initiation is not recommended.
6A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (prior ischemic stroke 2 years ago) and an HbA1c of 8.4% despite Metformin monotherapy. His eGFR is 68 mL/min/1.73m². Which antidiabetic agent is the most appropriate add-on to reduce major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE)?
A.GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven CV benefit (e.g., Dulaglutide, Semaglutide)
B.Sulfonylurea (e.g., Glipizide)
C.Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor (e.g., Sitagliptin)
D.Thiazolidinedione (e.g., Pioglitazone)
Explanation: According to diabetes clinical practice guidelines, patients with type 2 diabetes and established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) should receive either a GLP-1 receptor agonist (such as Dulaglutide, Liraglutide, or subcutaneous Semaglutide) or an SGLT2 inhibitor with demonstrated cardiovascular outcome benefits, independent of baseline HbA1c. These agents significantly reduce all-cause mortality, cardiovascular death, and non-fatal stroke/myocardial infarction.
7A 27-year-old female in her 8th week of gestation is diagnosed with symptomatic Graves' disease with marked hyperthyroidism (free T4 3.8 ng/dL, TSH < 0.01 mIU/L). Which antithyroid drug is the treatment of choice during the first trimester of pregnancy?
A.Propylthiouracil (PTU)
B.Methimazole (MMI)
C.Radioactive iodine (I-131)
D.Lugol's iodine solution monotherapy
Explanation: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is the preferred thionamide during the first trimester of pregnancy because Methimazole is associated with embryopathy and congenital malformations (aplasia cutis, choanal atresia, and esophageal atresia). After the first trimester (weeks 16 onwards), patients are often switched to Methimazole to reduce the risk of PTU-induced maternal fulminant hepatotoxicity. Both drugs require monitoring of thyroid function and signs of agranulocytosis.
8A 34-year-old previously healthy male presents with fever, productive cough, and right lower lobe consolidation confirmed on chest radiography, consistent with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). He has no comorbidities and no drug allergies. Which outpatient empiric oral antibiotic regimen is recommended by clinical guidelines?
A.Amoxicillin 1 g orally three times daily
B.Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily
C.Cefixime 400 mg orally once daily
D.Vancomycin 500 mg orally four times daily
Explanation: For outpatient adults with CAP without comorbidities or risk factors for antibiotic-resistant pathogens, high-dose Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily) or Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily) is recommended as first-line empiric monotherapy. High-dose amoxicillin provides reliable coverage against Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen. In areas with macrolide resistance < 25%, Azithromycin may also be used.
9A 24-year-old non-pregnant female presents to a community clinic with dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency for 2 days without fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. Urinalysis confirms pyuria and bacteriuria consistent with acute uncomplicated cystitis. Which oral agent is considered a first-line therapy?
A.Nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
B.Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 3 days
C.Norfloxacin 400 mg twice daily for 14 days
D.Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
Explanation: Nitrofurantoin (100 mg twice daily for 5 days), Fosfomycin trometamol (3 g single dose), and Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (for 3 days, if local E. coli resistance is < 20%) are first-line options for acute uncomplicated cystitis. Nitrofurantoin achieves high concentrations in the lower urinary tract with minimal systemic disruption and low resistance rates. Fluoroquinolones are reserved due to adverse effect profiles and resistance selection.
10A 68-year-old hospitalized patient develops hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) 5 days after admission. The clinical team requires empiric intravenous antibiotic coverage with definitive antipseudomonal activity. Which antibiotic lacks activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A.Ceftriaxone
B.Piperacillin-tazobactam
C.Cefepime
D.Meropenem
Explanation: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that lacks intrinsic activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. In contrast, antipseudomonal beta-lactams include Piperacillin-tazobactam, Cefepime, Ceftazidime, Meropenem, and Imipenem-cilastatin. Using Ceftriaxone for suspected or documented pseudomonal infections leads to treatment failure.

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