What is the passing score for the Thai Nursing and Midwifery Council (TNMC) licensing exam?

Candidates must achieve at least 60% in each of the 8 statutory subjects. If a candidate passes some subjects but scores below 60% in others, TNMC allows them to retain credit for the passed subjects and re-sit only the failed subjects in subsequent examination rounds.

What are the 8 statutory subjects evaluated on the licensing examination?

The 8 statutory subjects defined by TNMC are: 1) Midwifery, 2) Maternal and Newborn Nursing, 3) Pediatric and Adolescent Nursing, 4) Adult Nursing, 5) Geriatric Nursing, 6) Psychiatric and Mental Health Nursing, 7) Community Health Nursing and Primary Medical Care, and 8) Nursing Law and Ethics.

Is this practice resource an official TNMC examination simulation?

No. This is an independent educational practice bank developed by OpenExamPrep. It offers an English-language MCQ study adaptation with official Thai clinical terms in parentheses to support clinical reasoning and concept review, and is not an official TNMC publication.

Who is eligible to sit for the TNMC First Class Licensing Examination?

Graduates holding a Bachelor of Nursing Science (B.N.S.) degree from an educational institution accredited by the Thailand Nursing and Midwifery Council who possess Thai nationality (or qualify under international reciprocal licensing regulations) and meet ethical and health requirements.

How long is the First Class Professional Nurse and Midwife License valid?

The First Class Professional Nurse and Midwife License is valid for 5 years. License renewal requires completing accredited Continuing Nursing Education Units (CNEU) administered under TNMC regulations.

All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for Thai Nursing License

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card

100+ Questions

100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Exam Review

Key Facts: Thai Nursing License Exam

8 Subjects

Statutory examination subjects required for First Class Nurse and Midwife licensure

TNMC Licensing Regulations

60% Pass Mark

Minimum passing score required in every individual examination subject

TNMC Examination Criteria

5 Years

License validity period, renewable through CNEU continuing education credits

Nursing and Midwifery Professions Act

100 Questions

Independent practice bank items covering all 8 statutory subject areas

OpenExamPrep Practice Bank

Independent practice by OpenExamPrep for the Thai Nursing & Midwifery Council License (First Class): an English-language MCQ study adaptation covering all 8 statutory examination subjects with Thai terminology. It is an independent educational resource and not an official TNMC examination simulation.

Sample Thai Nursing License Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Thai Nursing License exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A primigravida at 28 weeks of gestation visits the antenatal clinic for a routine check-up. The nurse measures the fundal height using McDonald's technique. Which fundal height measurement and anatomical landmark are expected for normal single-fetus fetal growth at this gestational age?

A.28 cm, measured with the uterine fundus approximately midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process

B.22 cm, measured with the uterine fundus positioned exactly at the level of the umbilicus

C.34 cm, measured with the uterine fundus directly resting against the xiphoid process

D.16 cm, measured with the uterine fundus midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus

Explanation: According to McDonald's rule, between 20 and 34 weeks of gestation, the fundal height in centimeters closely correlates with the gestational age in weeks (plus or minus 2 cm). At 28 weeks, the fundus is expected to measure approximately 28 cm and is palpated roughly three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, midway toward the xiphoid process.

2A woman in labor is admitted to the labor room. The nurse performs a vaginal examination and determines that the cervix is 5 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and the fetus is at station 0, with uterine contractions occurring every 3 minutes lasting 50 seconds. In which stage and phase of normal labor is this client?

A.First stage, latent phase

B.First stage, active phase

C.Second stage, pelvic phase

D.Third stage, placental phase

Explanation: The first stage of labor spans from the onset of regular contractions until full cervical dilation (10 cm). The active phase begins when the cervix reaches 4 to 5 cm dilation and continues through full dilation, characterized by accelerated cervical opening and stronger, regular contractions every 2 to 3 minutes.

3During normal labor with a vertex presentation in the left occipitoanterior (LOA) position, which mechanism of labor (cardinal movement) occurs as the fetal occiput rotates 45 degrees anteriorly from the pelvic inlet toward the pubic symphysis?

A.Internal rotation

B.External rotation (restitution)

C.Extension

D.Flexion

Explanation: Internal rotation is the cardinal movement where the fetal presenting part turns as it descends through the curved birth canal to align the anteroposterior diameter of the fetal head with the longest diameter of the pelvic outlet (anteroposterior diameter). In an LOA position, the occiput rotates 45 degrees anteriorly under the pubic symphysis.

4Following the birth of a healthy infant, the nurse observes signs of placental separation. Which clinical sign indicates that the placenta has detached from the uterine wall and is ready for controlled delivery?

A.Sudden lengthening of the umbilical cord with a small gush of dark blood and a globoid, firm fundus rising in the abdomen

B.Softening and relaxation of the uterine fundus with a cessation of maternal vaginal bleeding

C.Gradual retraction of the umbilical cord back into the vaginal canal with maternal bradycardia

D.Decrease in uterine fundal firmness with persistent bright red pulsating arterial hemorrhage

Explanation: Classic clinical signs of placental separation include: (1) the uterus becomes globular and firmer, (2) the fundus rises upward in the abdomen as the placenta descends into the lower uterine segment, (3) a sudden gush or trickle of dark retroplacental blood escapes, and (4) the umbilical cord visibly lengthens at the introitus.

5The nurse in a community hospital labor room is plotting the labor progress of a nulliparous woman on a World Health Organization (WHO) partograph. The cervical dilation curve crosses to the right of the 'Alert line'. What is the mandatory nursing and clinical management at this point?

A.Re-evaluate maternal and fetal wellbeing, assess contraction dynamics and pelvis, and arrange transfer or obstetric specialist referral before reaching the 'Action line'

B.Immediately perform emergency cesarean section without further clinical evaluation or pelvic reassessment

C.Administer high-dose IV oxytocin bolus immediately without physician consultation or continuous fetal monitoring

D.Instruct the mother to bear down forcefully with every contraction regardless of cervical dilation status

Explanation: On the WHO partograph, the Alert line represents a dilation rate of 1 cm per hour in the active phase. Crossing the Alert line indicates abnormal or delayed labor progress, requiring immediate maternal-fetal assessment (pelvic adequacy, fetal presentation, contraction frequency/intensity) and preparation for obstetrician referral or hospital transfer before reaching the 4-hour Action line.

6A woman at 39 weeks of gestation receiving oxytocin augmentation exhibits repetitive late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitoring strip. What is the nurse's immediate priority sequence of intrauterine resuscitation interventions?

A.Discontinue oxytocin infusion, position client in left lateral tilt, administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask, and increase IV crystalloid infusion

B.Increase oxytocin rate to speed up delivery, place client in supine position, and prepare for immediate forceps application

C.Encourage the client to hyperventilate, administer IV bolus of methylergonovine, and restrict IV fluids

D.Apply fundal pressure during contractions, decrease IV maintenance fluid rate, and ambulate the patient

Explanation: Late decelerations reflect uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. Intrauterine resuscitation requires immediately stopping uterine stimulants (oxytocin), repositioning the mother onto her left side to relieve vena caval compression and enhance placental perfusion, administering 8-10 L/min oxygen via face mask, increasing IV fluids to expand vascular volume, and notifying the obstetrician.

7A 26-year-old multipara in the active phase of labor has remained at 6 cm cervical dilation with station 0 for the past 3 hours despite regular uterine contractions every 2.5 minutes. Palpation reveals adequate uterine relaxation between contractions, but an abdominal ridge is noted between the upper and lower uterine segments. Which condition must the nurse suspect?

A.Pathologic retraction ring of Bandl (Bandl's ring) indicating obstructed labor and impending uterine rupture

B.Physiologic retraction ring indicating normal transition into the second stage of labor

C.Uterine inversion caused by vigorous maternal bearing down

D.Incipient abruptio placentae with concealed retroplacental hematoma

Explanation: A pathologic retraction ring (Bandl's ring) is a visible and palpable abdominal groove that develops at the junction of the thickened upper contractile segment and the thinned lower uterine segment in obstructed labor. It is a critical warning sign of cephalopelvic disproportion and impending uterine rupture requiring immediate surgical intervention.

8A midwife is evaluating a laboring woman for suspected cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD). Which clinical finding most strongly suggests cephalopelvic disproportion in a term pregnancy with vertex presentation?

A.Fetal head remains unengaged (floating at station -3) despite full cervical dilation and strong contractions, with prominent caput succedaneum and severe cranial molding

B.Rapid cervical dilation of 3 cm per hour with descent from station 0 to +2 within 45 minutes

C.Spontaneous rupture of membranes yielding clear amniotic fluid with fetal heart rate of 140 bpm

D.Anterior cervical lip that completely disappears when the mother assumes a hands-and-knees position

Explanation: Failure of the fetal head to engage and descend despite strong uterine contractions and complete dilation, coupled with progressive caput succedaneum and excessive cranial molding, indicates that the fetal head is too large to negotiate the maternal pelvis (cephalopelvic disproportion), mandating cesarean delivery.

9Thirty minutes after a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, the nurse notes that the mother's perineal pad is completely saturated with blood, and pooling is observed under the buttocks. On palpation, the uterine fundus is soft, boggy, and located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. What is the immediate first nursing action?

A.Perform vigorous external bimanual massage of the uterine fundus until firm

B.Administer IV methylergonovine bolus before assessing blood pressure or uterine firmness

C.Pack the vaginal canal tightly with sterile gauze roll sponges

D.Place the mother in Trendelenburg position and apply cold compresses to the perineum

Explanation: Uterine atony is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). The initial immediate nursing action is vigorous fundal massage to stimulate myometrial contractions and compress the spiral arteries at the placental bed. Concurrently, bladder distension is assessed, oxytocics are administered as ordered, and vital signs are monitored.

10During perineal inspection after childbirth, the nurse notes a perineal laceration that involves the vaginal mucosa, fourchette, perineal skin, and the underlying perineal body muscles, but the anal sphincter complex remains completely intact. How should the nurse classify this laceration?

A.First-degree perineal tear

B.Second-degree perineal tear

C.Third-degree perineal tear

D.Fourth-degree perineal tear

Explanation: A second-degree perineal tear extends beyond the vaginal mucosa and fourchette to involve the muscles of the perineal body (bulbocavernosus and superficial transverse perineal muscles) while sparing the anal sphincter complex.

About the Thai Nursing License Practice Questions

Check the official exam sponsor for the exam format, time limit, passing standard, fees, and eligibility requirements. These details are not yet confirmed here.