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Free Practice Questions for Thai Lawyer License Assessments
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Sample Thai Lawyer License Assessments Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Thai Lawyer License Assessments exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 24+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A client supplies a document that counsel knows has been fabricated. The client insists that it is essential to winning. What should counsel do?
A.File it with a statement that its authenticity is the client's responsibility.
B.Refuse to present the fabricated evidence and advise the client about lawful evidence.
C.File it if opposing counsel has not requested inspection.
D.Use it only during settlement discussions with the court.
Explanation: The Lawyers Council's ethics rules prohibit deceiving the court through false statements or fabricated evidence. A client's instructions do not authorize counsel to participate in that deception.
2Which proposed step in witness preparation breaches the Lawyers Council's ethics rules?
A.Ask the witness to distinguish personal observation from information received later.
B.Explain the order of examination and cross-examination.
C.Rehearse an invented account and instruct the witness to present it as a memory.
D.Review a contemporaneous record and ask whether it refreshes the witness's recollection.
Explanation: Preparing a witness to understand the process differs from teaching the witness to give false testimony. The ethics rules expressly prohibit participation in creating false evidence and inducing false testimony.
3A lawyer advised a claimant about a disputed transaction and learned confidential facts. The opposing party now offers to retain the lawyer in that same dispute. Which response best addresses the conflict?
A.Accept because no court appointment was filed for the claimant.
B.Accept if the lawyer promises not to quote the earlier advice.
C.Accept after returning the claimant's consultation fee.
D.Decline the adverse representation; the prior professional consultation is relevant even without a filed lawsuit.
Explanation: The ethics rule covers receiving professional consultation or learning about a case through work for one side and then assisting the opposing side in the same matter. It is not limited to a lawyer already appointed on the court record.
4A journalist requests confidential information learned by a lawyer while advising a client. There is no client permission or court authority to disclose it. What is the appropriate response?
A.Decline to disclose the professional confidence.
B.Disclose it once the retainer has ended.
C.Disclose it if the journalist promises to omit the client's name.
D.Disclose it after removing the lawyer's own advice from the account.
Explanation: The council's confidentiality rule protects secrets learned in the lawyer's professional role. Its stated exceptions include client permission and authority of the court; a media request is neither.
5Counsel receives settlement money belonging to a client. There is no agreed deduction, client consent to retention, or other reasonable ground for holding it. Which course is appropriate?
A.Retain the money until the client asks for it in writing.
B.Apply it to an unrelated disputed fee without discussing the deduction.
C.Account to the client and arrange prompt delivery of the client's money.
D.Treat receipt by counsel as transferring ownership to counsel until the retainer closes.
Explanation: The ethics rules prohibit misappropriating client property or withholding it unreasonably without consent. Receipt in a professional capacity requires proper handling for the client, not treating the funds as counsel's property.
6Which proposed office notice is least likely to breach the Lawyers Council rule on boastful solicitation?
A.A guarantee that every retained case will succeed.
B.A restrained statement of the lawyer's name, qualifications and office address.
C.A claim that the lawyer can obtain special treatment through personal judicial connections.
D.A claim of superior ability over all competing lawyers, inviting litigants to transfer their cases.
Explanation: The advertising rule distinguishes a courteous, reasonable display of professional particulars from boastful promotion intended to solicit litigants. Claims of guaranteed outcomes or special influence also raise separate ethical concerns.
7A draft civil plaint names the parties and requests payment but never explains the transaction or default. Which revision best supplies the missing substance?
A.Add the essential facts establishing the claim and connect them to the relief requested.
B.Attach a witness list while leaving the factual pleading unchanged.
C.Add counsel's prediction that the defendant will lose.
D.Replace the requested amount with a request for any relief the court considers appropriate.
Explanation: A civil plaint must clearly state the nature of the claim, its supporting facts and the relief sought. Evidence attachments or confidence about success cannot replace the factual basis of the pleaded claim.
8An ordinary contract is unperformed, and no exception permits immediate rescission. Counsel proposes using the Civil and Commercial Code's notice-to-perform route. What should the notice do?
A.Declare that every breach automatically cancels a contract without further action.
B.Demand performance within a reasonable period, preserving the right to rescind if performance still does not occur.
C.Demand only an apology, leaving the required contractual performance unspecified.
D.State that the notice itself proves the amount of damages in later proceedings.
Explanation: The ordinary notice route gives the defaulting party a reasonable period to perform. Continued non-performance after that period permits the other party to rescind; the notice does not itself prove damages.
9A defendant disputes delivery of the goods alleged in a civil plaint. Which draft answer best meets the requirement to explain a denial?
A.The defendant denies everything, with reasons to be supplied after judgment.
B.The defendant puts the plaintiff to proof but does not identify any disputed allegation.
C.The defendant disagrees because defending the action is commercially preferable.
D.The defendant denies the alleged delivery and states the facts relied on, including that the identified consignment was returned before acceptance.
Explanation: An answer should identify what is admitted or denied and give the grounds for denial. A concrete factual response helps define the disputed issue; a bare general denial does not perform that function.
10A defendant proposes a counterclaim entirely unrelated to the transaction sued on. Under the ordinary civil pleading rule, what should counsel anticipate?
A.The unrelated claim must be heard together merely because the parties are the same.
B.Including it in the answer removes the need to plead its own cause of action.
C.The court will direct that the unrelated claim be brought as a separate action.
D.An unrelated counterclaim automatically defeats the original plaint.
Explanation: A defendant can counterclaim in an answer, but a claim unrelated to the original plaint is to be brought separately. Common parties alone do not make every dispute suitable for determination in the same action.
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