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Key Facts: CMA Step 2 Exam

300 MCQs

Official question count across two 150-question 3-hour sessions (Paper 1 & Paper 2)

Center for Medical Competency Assessment and Accreditation (CMA)

6 hours

Total test duration (two 3-hour testing sessions)

CMA candidate examination schedule

One best response

Official clinical sciences item type

CMA Step 2 table of specifications, effective July 2024

English with exceptions

Thai may be used for specialized legal or forensic terminology

CMA FAQ, item 15

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Sample CMA Step 2 Practice Questions

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1A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe retrosternal crushing chest pain radiating to his left shoulder and jaw for 2 hours. He is diaphoretic and pale. Vital signs show blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 58 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on ambient air. Electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL. The hospital has a 24-hour cardiac catheterization laboratory. What is the most appropriate definitive reperfusion strategy?
A.Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with a goal door-to-balloon time of less than 90 minutes
B.Immediate intravenous fibrinolytic therapy with tenecteplase regardless of catheterization laboratory availability
C.Urgent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) within 24 hours as first-line intervention
D.Conservative medical management with dual antiplatelet therapy and low-molecular-weight heparin alone
Explanation: This patient has an acute inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). When timely percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is available at a PCI-capable center, primary PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact is the preferred reperfusion therapy over fibrinolysis because it achieves higher rates of vessel patency, lower reinfarction rates, and reduced hemorrhagic stroke risk.
2A 62-year-old woman with chronic ischemic cardiomyopathy presents for routine follow-up. She reports persistent exertional dyspnea while walking flat ground (NYHA Class III). Her current medications are enalapril 10 mg twice daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, and furosemide 40 mg once daily. On physical examination, blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg, pulse 68 beats/min, jugular venous pressure is 3 cm above the sternal angle, and bilateral basilar crackles are noted. Echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 28%. Laboratory tests show serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L and estimated GFR 58 mL/min/1.73 m2. Which medication should be added next to reduce mortality?
A.Digoxin 0.125 mg once daily
B.Spironolactone 25 mg once daily
C.Diltiazem 30 mg three times daily
D.Doubling the daily furosemide dose without neurohormonal blocker addition
Explanation: In patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF <= 40%) who remain symptomatic despite guideline-directed therapy with an ACE inhibitor/ARNI and beta-blocker, adding a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone) provides a proven reduction in mortality and hospitalizations. The patient has appropriate serum potassium (< 5.0 mEq/L) and renal function (eGFR > 30 mL/min/1.73 m2) for this therapy.
3A 67-year-old man presents with palpitations and mild fatigue. Electrocardiogram reveals irregularly irregular narrow-complex tachycardia without distinct P waves at a rate of 118 beats/min, consistent with atrial fibrillation. His past medical history is significant for primary hypertension and an ischemic stroke 2 years ago without residual deficit. Blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals normal left ventricular function and no valvular disease. What is the most appropriate long-term antithrombotic strategy?
A.Aspirin 81 mg once daily monotherapy
B.Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel
C.Direct oral anticoagulant (e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran)
D.No antithrombotic therapy because the patient is currently hemodynamically stable
Explanation: This patient has non-valvular atrial fibrillation with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of at least 4 (Hypertension = 1, Age 65-74 = 1, prior Stroke = 2 points). A prior stroke alone places the patient at high annual risk of recurrent thromboembolism (>= 2 points indicates oral anticoagulation). Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are preferred over warfarin due to a superior safety profile, lower incidence of intracranial hemorrhage, and predictable pharmacokinetics.
4A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe throbbing headache, blurred vision, and confusion for 6 hours. Physical examination reveals blood pressure of 215/125 mmHg, pulse 92 beats/min, and bilateral retinal flame hemorrhages with papilledema on fundoscopy. Serum creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL 3 months ago). Which diagnosis and initial blood pressure reduction target are correct?
A.Hypertensive urgency; reduce mean arterial pressure by 50% within the first hour using oral nifedipine capsules
B.Hypertensive emergency; rapidly normalize blood pressure to < 120/80 mmHg within 30 minutes using intravenous sodium nitroprusside
C.Hypertensive urgency; prescribe oral hydrochlorothiazide and discharge home with outpatient clinic follow-up in 48 hours
D.Hypertensive emergency; reduce mean arterial pressure by no more than 20% to 25% over the first hour using intravenous labetalol or nicardipine
Explanation: Severe blood pressure elevation (> 180/120 mmHg) accompanied by acute target organ damage (papilledema, encephalopathy, acute kidney injury) constitutes a hypertensive emergency. Management requires admission to an intensive care unit and intravenous titratable antihypertensive therapy (e.g., labetalol, nicardipine). Mean arterial pressure should be reduced by no more than 20-25% within the first hour to avoid cerebral, coronary, and renal hypoperfusion resulting from autoregulatory shift.
5A 68-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of high fever, chills, pleuritic chest pain, and productive cough with rusty sputum. On examination, he is disoriented to time and place. Vital signs are blood pressure 84/52 mmHg, pulse 110 beats/min, respiratory rate 34 breaths/min, and temperature 39.1 C. Chest auscultation reveals bronchial breath sounds and crackles over the right lower lung zone. Laboratory evaluation shows blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 28 mg/dL and white blood cell count 18,200/uL. What is his CURB-65 score and recommended initial treatment setting?
A.CURB-65 score of 5; recommend immediate hospital admission with intensive care unit (ICU) level evaluation
B.CURB-65 score of 1; recommend outpatient management with oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
C.CURB-65 score of 2; recommend outpatient management with oral azithromycin monotherapy
D.CURB-65 score of 0; recommend home observation with antipyretics and rest
Explanation: Each of the five CURB-65 criteria is present: new confusion, raised urea equivalent to BUN above approximately 20 mg/dL, respiratory rate at least 30/min, systolic pressure below 90 mmHg or diastolic pressure at most 60 mmHg, and age at least 65 years. The score is therefore exactly 5. Severe hypotension and respiratory distress also require urgent resuscitation and assessment for critical care; a mortality score complements clinical judgment.
6A 64-year-old chronic heavy smoker with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and sputum purulence for 3 days. On physical examination, he is tachypneic (respiratory rate 28/min) using accessory muscles of respiration. Pulse oximetry on ambient air shows an SpO2 of 82%. Arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air reveals: pH 7.31, PaCO2 58 mmHg, PaO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3 28 mEq/L. In addition to inhaled bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids, and antibiotics, what is the most appropriate initial respiratory support strategy?
A.High-flow 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask to achieve SpO2 > 98%
B.Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV / BiPAP) targeting SpO2 88% to 92%
C.Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation without attempting non-invasive ventilation
D.Low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula at 0.5 L/min with strict avoidance of positive pressure support
Explanation: This patient is in acute hypercapnic respiratory failure secondary to an acute exacerbation of COPD (pH 7.31, PaCO2 58 mmHg). Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV, such as BiPAP) is the first-line evidence-based ventilatory support mode. It unloads fatigued respiratory muscles, improves alveolar ventilation, reduces PaCO2, prevents endotracheal intubation, and reduces mortality. Oxygen therapy in COPD should target an SpO2 of 88-92% to avoid worsening ventilation-perfusion mismatch and hypercapnia.
7A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset right pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. She underwent an uncomplicated elective left total knee arthroplasty 10 days ago. Physical examination reveals heart rate 116 beats/min, blood pressure 124/78 mmHg, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, and SpO2 91% on room air. Her left calf is warm, swollen, and tender. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with an S1Q3T3 pattern. Chest radiograph is normal. What is the most appropriate definitive diagnostic imaging investigation?
A.Transthoracic echocardiogram
B.Plasma D-dimer enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C.Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
D.Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scintigraphy only following invasive pulmonary catheterization
Explanation: The patient has a high clinical probability of pulmonary embolism (Wells score > 6: tachycardia = 1.5, recent major surgery = 1.5, signs of DVT = 3, PE most likely diagnosis = 3). In patients with high pretest probability who are hemodynamically stable and have no severe renal impairment or severe contrast allergy, computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the diagnostic imaging modality of choice to confirm the clot and guide anticoagulation.
8A 55-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea and dull right-sided chest pain for 2 weeks. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds, dullness to percussion, and decreased tactile fremitus over the lower two-thirds of the right hemithorax. Diagnostic thoracentesis yields yellowish fluid. Pleural fluid and serum chemistries show: Pleural fluid protein = 4.2 g/dL, Serum protein = 6.4 g/dL (ratio 0.66); Pleural fluid LDH = 280 U/L, Serum LDH = 350 U/L (ratio 0.80; laboratory upper limit of normal for serum LDH is 200 U/L). How is this effusion classified under Light's criteria, and what is the most consistent clinical cause?
A.Transudative effusion; congestive heart failure
B.Transudative effusion; liver cirrhosis with hepatic hydrothorax
C.Transudative effusion; nephrotic syndrome
D.Exudative effusion; parapneumonic effusion, tuberculosis, or malignancy
Explanation: According to Light's criteria, a pleural effusion is defined as an exudate if it meets at least one of the following: (1) Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio > 0.5 (here 0.66), (2) Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio > 0.6 (here 0.80), or (3) Pleural fluid LDH > two-thirds of the upper limit of normal serum LDH (280 > 133 U/L). This effusion meets all three criteria, classifying it as an exudate caused by localized inflammation, infection (such as bacterial pneumonia or tuberculosis), or malignant pleural involvement.
9A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with hematemesis and melena for 6 hours. He has been taking oral naproxen daily for chronic osteoarthritis. On physical examination, blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg, heart rate is 114 beats/min, and he appears pale and anxious. Following resuscitation with 2 liters of intravenous crystalloids and initiation of high-dose intravenous proton pump inhibitor (PPI), emergent esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) reveals a 2 cm duodenal bulb ulcer with active arterial spurting (Forrest Ia). What is the most appropriate management combination?
A.Dual endoscopic hemostasis (e.g., hemoclip placement or thermal coagulation plus epinephrine injection) followed by continuous intravenous high-dose PPI infusion
B.Intravenous octreotide infusion alone without endoscopic intervention
C.Oral omeprazole 20 mg once daily and advancement to a regular diet
D.Immediate emergent total gastrectomy without attempting endoscopic therapy
Explanation: Active peptic ulcer bleeding with arterial spurting (Forrest Ia) or non-bleeding visible vessel (Forrest IIa) carries an exceptionally high risk of recurrent hemorrhage and mortality if untreated. Current guidelines mandate dual endoscopic hemostatic therapy (mechanical hemoclips or thermal coagulation combined with diluted epinephrine injection) followed by high-dose intravenous proton pump inhibitor therapy (80 mg bolus followed by 8 mg/hour infusion or intermittent high-dose IV PPI for 72 hours) to maintain intragastric pH > 6.0 and stabilize fibrin clot formation.
10A 42-year-old man with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with severe epigastric abdominal pain radiating straight through to his back, accompanied by persistent nausea and vomiting for 24 hours. Physical examination reveals marked epigastric tenderness, voluntary guarding, blood pressure 104/66 mmHg, and heart rate 108 beats/min. Laboratory studies show serum lipase 1,450 U/L (normal < 60 U/L), serum amylase 890 U/L, and hematocrit 48%. What is the cornerstone of initial medical management within the first 12 to 24 hours?
A.Prophylactic intravenous broad-spectrum carbapenem antibiotics
B.Moderate, individualized intravenous crystalloid resuscitation with frequent reassessment, together with analgesia
C.Emergent surgical exploratory laparotomy and pancreatic necrosectomy
D.Complete fluid restriction to prevent systemic fluid overload
Explanation: The pain and markedly elevated lipase support acute pancreatitis. Initial care includes analgesia and intravenous crystalloid, commonly lactated Ringer's, adjusted to volume status and repeated clinical assessment. Routine aggressive hydration increases fluid overload without established improvement in outcomes; neither a fixed high infusion rate nor complete fluid restriction is appropriate.

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